2025Prelims · GS1
UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solutions
100 questions · Attempt mode with answer key and explanations
The UPSC Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper I (GS1) question paper is a crucial resource for aspirants preparing for the Civil Services Examination. On this page, you can solve all 100 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 along with the correct answer key, detailed explanations, and topic-wise analysis. Practising previous year questions (PYQs) helps candidates understand the pattern, difficulty level, and important areas frequently asked by UPSC.
Q1
Science & TechnologyElectric Vehicles and Alternative PowertrainsMedium
Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
Q2
Science & TechnologyUnmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs)Easy
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. Al types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. Al types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Q3
Science & TechnologyElectric Vehicle BatteriesDifficult
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
Q4
Environment & EcologyPlastic PollutionMedium
Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
Q5
Environment & EcologyCoal GasificationDifficult
Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Q6
Science & TechnologyHigh-Energy ExplosivesEasy
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL- 20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
Q7
Science & TechnologyQuantum Computing and AIEasy
Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana l chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana l chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It is expected that Majorana l chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana l chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q8
Science & TechnologyMonoclonal AntibodiesMedium
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q9
Science & TechnologyVirusesDifficult
Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Q10
Environment & EcologyActivated CarbonMedium
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q11
Environment & EcologyCement Industry EmissionsDifficult
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q12
Environment & EcologyCOP28 Declaration on Climate and HealthMedium
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
Statement II: The COP 28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health- care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
Statement II: The COP 28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health- care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q13
Environment & EcologyEarth's Rotation and Climate ChangeEasy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q14
Environment & EcologyParis Agreement Article 6Easy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q15
Environment & EcologyNature Solutions Finance HubDifficult
Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
Q16
Environment & EcologyDirect Air Capture (DAC)Medium
With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q17
Environment & EcologyPeacock Tarantula (Gooty Tarantula)Medium
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q18
Environment & EcologyIndia's CO2 EmissionsDifficult
Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita.
II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO2 emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita.
II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO2 emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q19
Science & TechnologyPlant ClassificationDifficult
Consider the following pairs: Plant Description
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q20
Environment & EcologyOxygen Production on EarthEasy
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q21
HistoryRaja Ram Mohan RoyEasy
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q22
HistoryNon-Cooperation MovementEasy
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non- Cooperation Programme?
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non- Cooperation Programme?
Q23
HistoryAraghattaMedium
The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
Q24
HistoryPallava RulersEasy
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
Q25
HistoryGupta PeriodEasy
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
Q26
HistoryChola DynastyEasy
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
Q27
HistoryMahajanapadas and RiversMedium
With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial Region River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka : Godavari
II. Kamboja : Vipas
III. Avanti : Mahanadi
IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
I. Asmaka : Godavari
II. Kamboja : Vipas
III. Avanti : Mahanadi
IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q28
Art & CultureGandharva MahavidyalayaDifficult
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:
Q29
HistoryMauryan AdministrationMedium
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:
Q30
HistoryNon-Cooperation MovementEasy
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q31
EconomyAlternative Investment Funds (AIFs)Medium
With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
Q32
EconomyReserve Bank of India (RBI) IncomeDifficult
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q33
Polity & GovernanceGovernment Organizations and FunctionsDifficult
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization Some of its functions It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Q34
EconomyBusiness Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR)Medium
Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q35
EconomyAgricultural Income and TaxationDifficult
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q36
EconomyCritical Minerals and Mining PolicyEasy
Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q37
EconomyBonds vs. StocksMedium
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q38
EconomyIndian Stock Market and Options TradingEasy
Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q39
Environment & EcologyCircular EconomyEasy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q40
EconomyGovernment Budget - Capital ReceiptsMedium
Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q41
International RelationsNATO MembershipDifficult
Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
Q42
GeographyAndes MountainsEasy
Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
Q43
GeographyEquator and Water BodiesDifficult
Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
Q44
GeographyTurmeric Production in IndiaDifficult
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q45
GeographyContinental Drift TheoryEasy
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q46
GeographyAtmospheric Dust ParticlesEasy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q47
GeographyIsotherms and Temperature DistributionEasy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q48
GeographyRock Permeability and PorosityMedium
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q49
GeographyAtmosphere and Earth's TemperatureEasy
Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q50
Polity & GovernanceRashtriya Gokul MissionMedium
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q51
Polity & GovernancePanchayati Raj InstitutionsMedium
Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Q52
International RelationsBIMSTECDifficult
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC :
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q53
Art & CultureGandhi Peace PrizeMedium
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q54
Science & TechnologyGAGAN Navigation SystemDifficult
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q55
Science & TechnologyAI Action SummitEasy
Consider the following statements regarding Al Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable Al.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable Al.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q56
International RelationsUN International YearsDifficult
Consider the following pairs :
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q57
International RelationsBRICS SummitMedium
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS;
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q58
Polity & GovernanceLokpalDifficult
Consider the following statements about Lokpal :
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q59
Art & CultureKho Kho World CupDifficult
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78- 40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54- 36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78- 40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54- 36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q60
Art & CultureChess AchievementsDifficult
Consider the following statements :
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q61
Science & TechnologyRare Earth ElementsDifficult
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors,
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors,
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q62
Science & TechnologyIndian Railways TechnologyDifficult
Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Q63
Science & TechnologySpace Missions and Microgravity ResearchDifficult
Consider the following pace missions :
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
Q64
Science & TechnologyIndia's Defense AircraftDifficult
With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type : Description
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globe- : Military transport aircraft master III How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globe- : Military transport aircraft master III How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Q65
Environment & EcologyArtificial Rainfall (Cloud Seeding)Easy
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
Q66
Polity & GovernancePresident's Pardoning PowerEasy
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q67
Polity & GovernanceSpeaker of Lok SabhaMedium
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political Ammediately party
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political Ammediately party
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q68
Polity & GovernanceAnti-Defection LawDifficult
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q69
Polity & GovernanceMinor Minerals RegulationMedium
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q70
Environment & EcologyNature Restoration Law (NRL)Easy
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
Q71
EconomyGovernment Budget DeficitsEasy
Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs.80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs.60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs.10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs.6,000 crores.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q72
GeographyInternational North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)Medium
India is one of the founding members of the International North- South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal a transportation corridor, which will connect
Q73
Environment & EcologyEthanol ProductionMedium
Consider the following statements :
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Q74
Environment & EcologyWet-Bulb TemperaturesDifficult
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.
Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q75
EconomyGovernment Budget DeficitsEasy
A country's fiscal deficit stands at Rs.50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs.10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are Rs.1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
Q76
Economy15th Finance Commission RecommendationsMedium
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance- based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance- based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q77
EconomyInternational Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)Easy
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) :
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single- handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War
II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single- handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War
II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q78
EconomyRTGS and NEFTDifficult
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, is takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, is takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q79
EconomyUPI International AcceptanceMedium
Consider the following countries :
I. United Arab Emirates
III. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
I. United Arab Emirates
III. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Q80
Polity & GovernancePM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli YojanaMedium
Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’ :
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q81
Polity & GovernanceOrdinance Making PowerEasy
Which reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q82
Polity & GovernanceIndian States FormationDifficult
Consider the following pairs : State Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q83
Polity & GovernanceConstitutional and Statutory BodiesEasy
With reference to India, consider the following :
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Q84
Polity & GovernanceGovernor's Discretionary PowersMedium
Consider the following statements :
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q85
Polity & GovernanceConstitutional ProvisionsEasy
Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Q86
Polity & GovernanceScheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule)Difficult
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State in declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q87
Polity & GovernanceGovernment Organizations and MinistriesDifficult
With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization Union Ministry
I. The National Automative Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched :
I. The National Automative Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched :
Q88
Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Amendment ProcedureMedium
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I-Union List, in the Sevent Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
I. List I-Union List, in the Sevent Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Q89
Polity & GovernanceImmunities of Constitutional FunctionariesDifficult
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q90
EconomyPetroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)Difficult
Consider the following activities :
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Productions of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Productions of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
Q91
HistoryMahatma Gandhi's StatementsEasy
“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
Q92
Art & CultureIndus Valley Civilization ArtEasy
The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
Q93
HistoryChauri Chaura IncidentDifficult
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
Q94
HistoryPoona Pact and Harijan UpliftmentEasy
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
Q95
HistoryPortuguese in India - Crop IntroductionMedium
Consider the following fruits :
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
Q96
GeographyTime ZonesDifficult
Consider the following countries :
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
Q97
GeographyInternational Date LineEasy
Consider the following statements :
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q98
HistorySelf-Respect MovementEasy
Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self- Respect Movement’?
Q99
GeographyMineral ResourcesDifficult
Consider the following pairs : Country Resource-rich in
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Q100
GeographyWorld Regions and CountriesDifficult
Consider the following pairs : Region Country
I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
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