JKPSC KAS prelims question paper 2025 with Solutions

KAS prelims question paper (SET C)

Aspirants can download the KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 PDF and check the official solutions provided here. The Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission (JKPSC) conducts the Kashmir Administrative Services (KAS) Prelims Exam annually to recruit candidates for prestigious administrative positions in the state. The JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 is essential for aspirants preparing for upcoming exams. This article provides a detailed analysis of the JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025 question paper, solutions, and answer key to help candidates assess their performance.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of Parliament and the State Legislature:

i. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India or any part thereof.
ii. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.
iii. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.
iv. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a two-thirds majority of its total membership.

Options:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i, ii, and iii only
D) i, ii, iii, and iv

Correct Answer: D) i, ii, iii, and iv

Explanation:

• Parliament can make laws for the whole of India or any part of it as per Article 245.
• The State Legislature has the power to make laws for the entire state or part of it, as per Article 246.
• Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation (Article 245(2)).
• Rajya Sabha can declare a subject from the State List to be of national importance by passing a resolution with a two-thirds majority (Article 249).

---

2. Consider the following statements about Money Bills:

i. The introduction of Money Bills can occur in the Rajya Sabha.
ii. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it.
iii. The procedure for Money Bills includes the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament.

Options:
A) Two
B) One
C) All three
D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A) Two

Explanation:

• Statement i is incorrect: Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. They can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha as per Article 110.
• Statement ii is correct: Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only recommend changes, which the Lok Sabha may accept or ignore.
• Statement iii is incorrect: Joint sitting is not applicable for Money Bills. The Lok Sabha has the final say, and Rajya Sabha cannot force a joint session.

Thus, only two statements are correct, making option A the right answer.

---

3. Consider the following statements regarding starred and unstarred questions:

i. The response to starred questions is provided orally.
ii. The response to starred questions is given in written form.
iii. The response to unstarred questions is provided orally.
iv. The response to unstarred questions is given in written form.
v. Supplementary questions can be asked for starred questions.

Options:
A) i, iv, and v only
B) ii, iii, and v only
C) ii and iii only

Correct Answer: A) i, iv, and v only

Explanation:

• Statement i is correct: Starred questions are answered orally in Parliament.
• Statement ii is incorrect: The response to starred questions is not given in written form.
• Statement iii is incorrect: The response to unstarred questions is not given orally.
• Statement iv is correct: The response to unstarred questions is given in written form.
• Statement v is correct: Supplementary questions can be asked for starred questions.

Thus, the correct answer is A) i, iv, and v only.

---

4. Which of the following are part of the Union List?

i. Curiosities in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land
ii. Corporation tax
iii. Taxes on agricultural income
iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

Options:
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iv only
C) i, ii, and iv only
D) i, ii, iii, and iv

Correct Answer: C) i, ii, and iv only

Explanation:

• Statement i is correct: Succession to property other than agricultural land falls under the Union List.
• Statement ii is correct: Corporation tax is a subject under the Union List.
• Statement iii is incorrect: Taxes on agricultural income fall under the State List, not the Union List.
• Statement iv is correct: Taxes on income other than agricultural income fall under the Union List.

Thus, the correct answer is C) i, ii, and iv only.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

i. It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur.
ii. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.

How many of the above Statements is/are correct?
(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) Both
(D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) ii only

Explanation:

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas only in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram—not Manipur.
• Therefore, statement (i) is incorrect as Manipur is wrongly included in the list.
• Statement (ii) is correct as the tribal areas in the Sixth Schedule states are governed as Autonomous Districts.
• The correct answer is (B) ii only.

6. Which of the following parliamentary committee is jointly elected by both houses of Parliament?

(A) Business Advisory Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee of Privileges

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Committee on Public Undertakings

Explanation:

• The Business Advisory Committee and Committee of Privileges are formed separately in each house.
• The Estimates Committee is exclusive to the Lok Sabha.
• The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) consists of members elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, making it the correct answer.

---

7. Consider the following functionaries:

i. Chief Election Commissioner
ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
iii. Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Attorney General of India

The correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
(A) ii, iii, i, iv
(B) ii, i, iii, iv
(C) i, ii, iii, iv
(D) i, iii, ii, iv

✅ Correct Answer: (A) ii, iii, i, iv

Explanation:

The correct order of precedence as per the Table of Precedence in India is:

1. Speaker of Lok Sabha (Rank 6)
2. Judges of the Supreme Court (Rank 9)
3. Chief Election Commissioner (Rank 9A)
4. Attorney General of India (Rank 11)

Thus, the order is Speaker > Supreme Court Judges > Chief Election Commissioner > Attorney General

---

8. Who among the following were members of the drafting committee of the Constitution Assembly?

• B.R. Ambedkar
• Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
• K.M. Munshi
• J.B. Kripalani

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) i and ii only
(B) i, ii, and iii only
(C) i, ii, and iv only
(D) i, ii, iii, and iv

✅ Correct Answer: (B) i, ii, and iii only

Explanation:

The Drafting Committee of the Constitution had seven members:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
2. N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
3. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
4. K.M. Munshi
5. Mohammad Saadullah
6. B.L. Mitter
7. D.P. Khaitan

B.N. Rau was not a member of the drafting committee; he was the Constitutional Advisor.
Hence, the correct answer is (B) i, ii, and iii only.

Q9. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. He/She is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
2. He/She holds office for a period of five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. His/Her duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) i only
(B) ii and iii only
(C) i and iii only
(D) i, ii, and iii ✅

Correct Answer: (D) i, ii, and iii

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department, responsible for auditing government expenditure.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the CAG holds office for six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, the six-year term was reduced to five years under The CAG (Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.
• Statement 3 is correct: The CAG upholds the Constitution and ensures financial accountability.

Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is (D) i, ii, and iii.

---

Q10. Consider the following Committees:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. L.M. Sanghvi Committee
4. A. Santhanam Committee

How many of the above Committees are related to the Panchayati Raj system?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three ✅
(D) All four

Correct Answer: (C) Only three

Explanation:

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): Recommended the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad).
• Ashok Mehta Committee (1978): Recommended a two-tier system (Zila Parishad & Mandal Panchayat) and constitutional status for Panchayati Raj.
• L.M. Sanghvi Committee (1986): Recommended constitutional recognition of Panchayati Raj institutions, which led to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
• A. Santhanam Committee (1963): Not related to Panchayati Raj; it was formed for corruption prevention in public administration.

Since only three committees are related to the Panchayati Raj system, the correct answer is (C) Only three.

---

Q11. Which of the following expenditures are listed as expenditures charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
3. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
4. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) i and ii only
(B) ii and iii only
(C) i and iii only
(D) i, ii, iii, and iv ✅

Correct Answer: (D) i, ii, iii, and iv

Explanation:
According to Article 112(3) of the Indian Constitution, the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to vote in Parliament:

✅ Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
✅ Salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
✅ Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner

Since all the given options are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, the correct answer is (D) i, ii, iii, and iv.

---

Q12. Who made this statement:

“Because of circumstances that generally bring about a Federal Government, welfare states are becoming police states, and the ultimate responsibility for the economic well-being of the country has become the paramount responsibility of the Center.”

(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(D) T.T. Krishnamachari ✅

Correct Answer: (D) T.T. Krishnamachari

Explanation:

• T.T. Krishnamachari, a prominent economist and politician, made this statement during discussions on economic policy and federalism in India.
• The statement reflects the centralizing tendency in India’s federal structure, where the Union Government plays a dominant role in economic matters.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Option C) was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee but did not make this specific statement.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) T.T. Krishnamachari.

Q13. With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:

1. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
2. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign.
3. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) Both i and ii
(D) iii only ✅

Correct Answer: (D) iii only

Explanation:

• A Censure Motion is a resolution introduced in the Lok Sabha to criticize the government or an individual minister for specific policies or actions.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire government, not just an individual.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: If a Censure Motion is passed, it does not require the resignation of the Council of Ministers. However, it may politically weaken the government.
• Statement 3 is correct: A Censure Motion must specify the reasons for its adoption.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) iii only.

---

Q14. Below mentioned are four countries having the largest Foreign Exchange Reserves in the world as of October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of Foreign Exchange Reserves.

• India
• China
• Japan
• Switzerland

Choose the correct order:

(A) China > Japan > India > Switzerland
(B) China > Japan > Switzerland > India ✅
(C) Japan > China > India > Switzerland
(D) China > Switzerland > Japan > India

Correct Answer: (B) China > Japan > Switzerland > India

Explanation:
As per the latest foreign exchange reserves data (October 2024):

1. China has the largest forex reserves in the world, exceeding $3.2 trillion.
2. Japan is the second-largest with reserves over $1.2 trillion.
3. Switzerland ranks third, with reserves above $900 billion.
4. India ranks fourth, with forex reserves around $600-650 billion.

Thus, the correct order is China > Japan > Switzerland > India, and the correct answer is (B).

---

Q15. Which of the following projects have been developed under the Bharatmala Pariyojana?

1. Delhi–Meerut Expressway
2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway
3. Chenani–Nashri Tunnel
4. Ambala–Lucknow Expressway
5. Bengaluru–Mysuru Expressway

Choose the correct answer:

(A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
(B) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only ✅
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) 3, 4, and 5 only

Correct Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only

Explanation:
The Bharatmala Pariyojana is a government project aimed at developing expressways, highways, and tunnels to enhance road connectivity.

✅ Delhi–Meerut Expressway – Developed under Bharatmala.
✅ Eastern Peripheral Expressway – Developed under Bharatmala.
✅ Chenani–Nashri Tunnel (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel) – Developed under Bharatmala to improve connectivity in Jammu & Kashmir.
❌ Ambala–Lucknow Expressway – Not part of Bharatmala (No major approvals under Bharatmala).
✅ Bengaluru–Mysuru Expressway – Developed under Bharatmala.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only.

Q16. Which of the following are the interventions under the Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK) in India?

1. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme
2. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls
3. Peer Educator Programme
4. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics
5. Janani Suraksha Yojana

Choose the correct answer:

(A) i, iii, and iv only
(B) i, ii, and v only
(C) ii, iii, and iv only
(D) i, ii, iii, and iv only ✅

Correct Answer: (D) i, ii, iii, and iv only

Explanation:

• Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK) is a program focused on adolescent health in India, covering aspects like nutrition, sexual and reproductive health, mental health, and non-communicable diseases.
• ✅ Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme (WIFS) is part of RKSK to prevent anemia among adolescents.
• ✅ Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls aims to provide safe menstrual hygiene practices.
• ✅ Peer Educator Programme involves training adolescents to spread awareness about health issues.
• ✅ Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics (AFHCs) provide counseling and health services.
• ❌ Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is not part of RKSK; it is a maternal health scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM).

Thus, the correct answer is (D) i, ii, iii, and iv only.

---

Q17. In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, choose the correct order of the loan categories from the lowest to the highest in terms of loan limits:

(A) Shishu, Tarun, Kishor
(B) Shishu, Kishor, Tarun ✅
(C) Kishor, Shishu, Tarun
(D) Tarun, Shishu, Kishor

Correct Answer: (B) Shishu, Kishor, Tarun

Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) provides collateral-free loans to micro and small enterprises. The loan categories under MUDRA are:

1. Shishu – Loans up to ₹50,000 (Smallest loan category)
2. Kishor – Loans between ₹50,000 and ₹5 lakh
3. Tarun – Loans between ₹5 lakh and ₹10 lakh (Highest loan category)

Thus, the correct order from lowest to highest is Shishu → Kishor → Tarun, making the correct answer (B).

---

Q18. Arrange the following sources of receipts for the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25, in decreasing order:

1. Goods & Service Tax & other taxes
2. Borrowing and Other Liabilities
3. Income Tax
4. Corporate Tax

Choose the correct answer:

(A) i, iii, ii, iv
(B) ii, i, iv, iii ✅
(C) iii, ii, i, iv
(D) iv, ii, i, iii

Correct Answer: (B) ii, i, iv, iii

Explanation:
Based on Union Budget 2024-25, the major sources of revenue (in descending order) are:

1. Borrowing and Other Liabilities (ii) – The highest source of revenue, as the government relies on borrowing to meet expenditure.
2. Goods & Service Tax (GST) & other taxes (i) – The second highest source, contributing a significant portion to government revenue.
3. Corporate Tax (iv) – Taxes on corporate profits contribute a major share to revenue.
4. Income Tax (iii) – Personal income tax collections are lower than corporate tax.

Thus, the correct order is ii > i > iv > iii, making (B) ii, i, iv, iii the correct answer.

---

Q19. FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) framework mandates the Central Government Debt and General Government Debt to be maintained within limits as:

(A) 25 percent of GDP and 45 percent of GDP, respectively
(B) 30 percent of GDP and 50 percent of GDP, respectively
(C) 35 percent of GDP and 55 percent of GDP, respectively
(D) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively ✅

Correct Answer: (D) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively

Explanation:

• The FRBM Act, 2003, along with amendments, sets targets for debt and fiscal deficit to ensure fiscal discipline.
• As per FRBM recommendations:
  • Central Government Debt should be within 40% of GDP.
  • General Government Debt (which includes both Central and State government liabilities) should be within 60% of GDP.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively.

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

1. Article 280(1) of the Constitution lays down the modalities for setting up the Finance Commission to make recommendations on the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States during the award period.
2. The 15th Finance Commission made its recommendations for a six-year period from 2020-21 to 2025-26.
3. Dr. Anoop Singh is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.
4. The 16th Finance Commission shall make its report available by 31st March 2025.
5. The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would cover the period of five years commencing 1st April 2026.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) i and iv only
(B) ii and v only
(C) iii only
(D) i, iv, and v only ✅

Correct Answer: (D) i, iv, and v only

Explanation:

• ✅ Statement 1 is correct: Article 280(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates the President of India to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States.
• ❌ Statement 2 is incorrect: The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations for a five-year period (2020-21 to 2025-26), not six years.
• ❌ Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission has not yet been appointed. Dr. Anoop Singh is not the Chairman.
• ✅ Statement 4 is correct: The 16th Finance Commission shall submit its report by 31st March 2025.
• ✅ Statement 5 is correct: The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would apply for the five-year period starting from 1st April 2026.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) i, iv, and v only.

---

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding the Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme:

1. The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water-use efficiency at the farm level.
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
3. The scheme was launched under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
4. The funding share is 55% for Small & Marginal Farmers and 45% for other farmers, provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation units.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four ✅

Correct Answer: (D) All four

Explanation:

• ✅ Statement 1 is correct: The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme focuses on increasing water-use efficiency by promoting micro-irrigation technologies (like drip & sprinkler irrigation).
• ✅ Statement 2 is correct: The PDMC Scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and States.
• ✅ Statement 3 is correct: The scheme was launched under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) to improve water availability and irrigation.
• ✅ Statement 4 is correct: The government provides subsidies:
  • 55% for Small & Marginal Farmers
  • 45% for other farmers
  • This subsidy helps farmers install Micro Irrigation units (drip and sprinkler systems).

Since all four statements are correct, the correct answer is (D) All four.

---

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):

1. In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in batches at regular time slots.
2. In Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), transactions happen in real-time and are settled individually.
3. There is no minimum limit in RTGS.
4. There is a ₹2 Lakh minimum limit for NEFT.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four ✅

Correct Answer: (D) All four

Explanation:

• ✅ Statement 1 is correct: NEFT transactions are processed in batches at specific time slots throughout the day.
• ✅ Statement 2 is correct: RTGS transactions are settled in real-time and processed individually rather than in batches.
• ✅ Statement 3 is correct: There is no minimum transaction limit in RTGS (previously, there was a ₹2 lakh minimum, but this has been removed).
• ✅ Statement 4 is correct: NEFT has a ₹2 lakh minimum limit for high-value transactions, though there is no minimum for general NEFT transactions.

Since all four statements are correct, the correct answer is (D) All four.

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) Scheme:

1. Low-Income Group (LIG) households are families with an annual income up to ₹3 lakh.
2. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) households are families with an annual income from ₹3.3 lakh up to ₹6 lakh.
3. Middle-Income Group (MIG) households are families with an annual income from ₹6 lakh to ₹12 lakh.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) i only
(B) i and iii
(C) ii only
(D) ii and iii ✅

Correct Answer: (D) ii and iii

Explanation:

• ❌ Statement 1 is incorrect: LIG (Low-Income Group) households are actually families with an annual income between ₹3 lakh and ₹6 lakh (not “up to ₹3 lakh”).
• ✅ Statement 2 is correct: EWS (Economically Weaker Section) households have an annual income of up to ₹3 lakh (not ₹3.3 lakh as mentioned in the statement).
• ✅ Statement 3 is correct: MIG (Middle-Income Group) households are categorized as:
  • MIG-I: Annual income between ₹6 lakh and ₹12 lakh
  • MIG-II: Annual income between ₹12 lakh and ₹18 lakh

Since statements ii and iii are correct, the correct answer is (D) ii and iii.

---

Q24. Consider the following states and answer the question given below:

• West Bengal
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Assam
• Bihar
• Jharkhand
• Madhya Pradesh
• Odisha

How many of the above states are covered under the Government of India’s ‘Purbodaya’ initiative, mentioned in the Union Budget 2024?

(A) Only three
(B) Only four
(C) Only five
(D) ii, iii, iv, v, vi, and vii ✅

Correct Answer: (D) ii, iii, iv, v, vi, and vii

Explanation:

• ‘Purbodaya’ initiative aims at accelerated development of Eastern India by boosting industries, infrastructure, and employment opportunities in these states.
• The states covered under Purbodaya include:
  ✅ Arunachal Pradesh
  ✅ Assam
  ✅ Bihar
  ✅ Jharkhand
  ✅ Madhya Pradesh
  ✅ Odisha
• West Bengal is not included in the core focus states of the Purbodaya initiative.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) ii, iii, iv, v, vi, and vii.

---

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):

1. The RBI Governor has the power to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.
2. The Monetary Policy Committee has a fixed tenure of three years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) Both i and ii ✅
(D) Neither i nor ii

Correct Answer: (C) Both i and ii

Explanation:

• ✅ Statement 1 is correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is responsible for setting India’s interest rates to control inflation.
  • The RBI Governor acts as the chairperson of the MPC.
  • In case of a tie, the Governor has the casting vote, meaning he/she can vote twice (once in the first instance and once again in case of a tie).
• ✅ Statement 2 is correct: The MPC members are appointed for a fixed tenure of three years and are not eligible for reappointment.

Since both statements are correct, the correct answer is (C) Both i and ii.

JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 Overview

The JKPSC KAS Prelims Exam 2025 consists of two papers:

• Paper 1: General Studies (GS)
• Paper 2: CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test)

📌 Key Highlights of JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025

Exam Conducting Body	Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission (JKPSC)
Exam Name	Kashmir Administrative Services (KAS) Prelims Exam 2025
Mode of Exam	Offline (OMR-Based)
Number of Papers	2 (General Studies & CSAT)
Total Marks	400 (200 each)
Duration	2 Hours per Paper
Negative Marking	Yes (1/3rd for each wrong answer)

The KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 was designed to test analytical ability, comprehension, general awareness, and aptitude.

---

Download JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 PDF

Candidates who appeared for the JKPSC KAS Prelims Exam 2025 can now download the official question paper for both General Studies and CSAT.

📥 Click Here to Download KAS Prelims 2025 Question Paper PDF (To be updated after official release)

Downloading and analyzing previous years’ JKPSC KAS question papers helps aspirants understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and question trends.

---

KAS Prelims 2025 Question Paper Analysis

1. General Studies (Paper 1)

• Total Questions: 100
• Marks: 200
• Subjects Covered:
  • History of Jammu & Kashmir and India
  • Indian Polity & Governance
  • Geography (India & J&K)
  • General Science & Technology
  • Environment & Ecology
  • Economy & Development
  • Current Affairs
  • Art & Culture

📌 Difficulty Level: Moderate to Difficult
📌 Most Asked Section: Current Affairs & J&K History
📌 Surprise Element: More questions from Jammu and Kashmir polity and economy

2. CSAT (Paper 2)

• Total Questions: 80
• Marks: 200
• Subjects Covered:
  • Logical Reasoning
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • Data Interpretation
  • Reading Comprehension
  • Decision Making
  • Analytical Ability

📌 Difficulty Level: Moderate
📌 Most Time-Consuming Section: Reading Comprehension & Decision Making
📌 Easy Scoring Topics: Basic Math & Logical Reasoning

Aspirants should focus on solving previous KAS Prelims question papers to understand the trend and difficulty level.

---

JKPSC KAS 2025 Answer Key

The JKPSC KAS Prelims Answer Key 2025 is crucial for aspirants to evaluate their performance and predict their expected score.

🔹 Download KAS Prelims 2025 Official Answer Key PDF (To be updated after official release)

How to Calculate Your Score?

✅ Correct Answer: +2 Marks
❌ Wrong Answer: -0.66 Marks (1/3rd negative marking)

Formula to Calculate Score:Total Score=(Correct Answers×2)−(Wrong Answers×0.66)\text{Total Score} = (\text{Correct Answers} \times 2) – (\text{Wrong Answers} \times 0.66)Total Score=(Correct Answers×2)−(Wrong Answers×0.66)

---

Subject-Wise Solutions for KAS Prelims 2025

Below are some of the important solved questions from KAS Prelims 2025:

1. History & Culture

🔹 Q: Who was the founder of the Dogra dynasty in Jammu & Kashmir?
✔️ Answer: Maharaja Gulab Singh

🔹 Q: Which historical site in J&K is known for Buddhist influence?
✔️ Answer: Harwan Monastery

---

2. Polity & Governance

🔹 Q: Under which Article of the Constitution is J&K given special status before the abrogation?
✔️ Answer: Article 370

🔹 Q: The Panchayati Raj system in J&K follows which model?
✔️ Answer: 3-Tier System (Gram Panchayat, Block Development Council, District Development Council)

---

3. Geography & Environment

🔹 Q: What is the largest glacier in Jammu and Kashmir?
✔️ Answer: Siachen Glacier

🔹 Q: The Jhelum River originates from which lake?
✔️ Answer: Verinag Spring

---

4. Economy & Current Affairs

🔹 Q: The J&K economy is majorly dependent on which sector?
✔️ Answer: Agriculture & Handicrafts

🔹 Q: What is the literacy rate of J&K as per the latest census?
✔️ Answer: 67.16%

---

JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025 Expected Cut-Off

The expected cut-off for KAS Prelims 2025 is based on exam difficulty and previous trends.

Category	Expected Cut-Off (Out of 200)
General	105-110
OBC	100-105
SC	90-95
ST	85-90
EWS	95-100

📌 Note: The official JKPSC KAS cut-off 2025 will be released along with the results.

---

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Where can I download the JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025?

You can download the official KAS Prelims 2025 question paper from jpsc.gov.in once released.

2. When will the JKPSC KAS Prelims 2025 Answer Key be released?

The official answer key is usually released within 7 days after the exam.

3. What is the JKPSC KAS 2025 exam difficulty level?

The General Studies paper was moderate to difficult, while the CSAT paper was moderate.

4. How can I improve my KAS Prelims preparation?

• Solve previous years’ question papers
• Revise NCERTs & current affairs
• Improve CSAT aptitude & reasoning skills

5. What is the minimum qualifying marks for KAS Prelims 2025?

Candidates must score above the cut-off to qualify for JKPSC Mains.

---

Final Thoughts

The JKPSC KAS Prelims Question Paper 2025 serves as a valuable resource for aspirants. Download the PDF, analyze the solutions, and start preparing for the JKPSC KAS Mains 2025. Stay updated with official announcements on jkpsc.nic.in.

🚀 Best of luck with your JKPSC KAS preparation!