UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 — Answer Key & Solved Paper | LearnPro

Answer: C

Explanation

A powertrain is the system that generates and delivers power to a vehicle's wheels. Alternative powertrain vehicles utilize non-conventional propulsion systems, moving away from traditional internal combustion engines (ICE). Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs) are powered solely by electricity stored in batteries, making them an alternative. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs) generate electricity from hydrogen fuel cells to power electric motors, also qualifying as alternative. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles combine fuel cells with batteries or other electric storage, thus representing another alternative powertrain. All three types represent significant departures from conventional ICE technology, aiming for reduced emissions and improved efficiency. This topic is relevant to UPSC due to India's focus on green energy, sustainable transportation, and reducing carbon footprint, often highlighted in government policies and initiatives like the promotion of green hydrogen and EVs.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing drones, for instance, require a runway or net for landing and cannot hover or land vertically. Statement II is also incorrect for the same reason; fixed-wing drones cannot hover. Automated hovering is characteristic of multirotor drones (like quadcopters) and some hybrid VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) designs, but not all UAVs. Statement III is incorrect because many UAVs, especially high-endurance military or long-range models, cannot rely solely on batteries due to power and endurance limitations. They often use fuel-based engines or hybrid systems. The energy density of batteries is generally lower than that of fuels, making them unsuitable for all UAV applications. The increasing use of drones in various sectors, including defense, surveillance, and logistics, makes their technological capabilities a relevant topic for UPSC.

Answer: C

Explanation

A typical lithium-ion battery consists of a cathode (positive electrode), an anode (negative electrode), and an electrolyte. Cobalt (I) is a common component in cathodes, particularly in Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC) batteries, enhancing energy density and battery life. Lithium (III) is fundamental to lithium-ion batteries, present in cathode compounds (e.g., LiCoO2) and the electrolyte. Nickel (IV) is also widely used in cathodes, especially in NMC and Nickel Cobalt Aluminum (NCA) formulations, to increase energy density and storage capacity. Graphite (II), however, is predominantly used as the anode material in most lithium-ion batteries due to its excellent intercalation properties for lithium ions. Therefore, Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are typically found in battery cathodes, while Graphite is used in anodes. The increasing adoption of electric vehicles and the strategic importance of critical minerals for battery production make this a significant topic for UPSC.

Answer: C

Explanation

All three items listed contain plastic. Cigarette butts (I) are a significant source of plastic pollution because their filters are made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic that degrades very slowly and releases toxic chemicals. Eyeglass lenses (II) are commonly made from various plastics such as CR-39, polycarbonate, or Trivex, chosen for their lightweight and shatter-resistant properties compared to glass. Car tyres (III) are a major, often overlooked, source of microplastic pollution. They are composed of a complex mixture of synthetic rubbers (plastics), natural rubber, and other chemicals. As tyres wear down, they shed tiny plastic particles into the environment. The pervasive nature of plastic pollution and its environmental impact, including microplastics, is a critical issue for UPSC, often linked to sustainable development and environmental conservation.

Answer: B

Explanation

Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas), primarily composed of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. This syngas is a versatile feedstock for various chemical productions. Ethanol (I) can be produced from syngas through advanced fermentation technologies, where microorganisms convert syngas into ethanol. Urea (III), a key component in fertilizers, is also produced using syngas from coal gasification. For example, the Talcher Fertilizer Plant in Odisha is an integrated coal gasification-based urea plant. Nitroglycerine (II), however, is an explosive and a vasodilatory drug, synthesized through the nitration of glycerol. Its production does not involve coal gasification. Therefore, coal gasification technology can be used to produce Ethanol and Urea. The government's push for cleaner coal technologies and domestic fertilizer production makes coal gasification a relevant topic for UPSC.

Answer: B

Explanation

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive or Octogen), and LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide) are all advanced high-energy explosive materials. CL-20 is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives known, HMX is a widely used nitroamine explosive more powerful than RDX, and LLM-105 is an insensitive high explosive designed for enhanced safety. These substances are primarily developed and utilized in military and defense applications for their high detonation velocities and pressures. They are not refrigerants, nor are they typically used as fuels for cruise missiles or rocket propulsion, which rely on different chemical compositions for sustained thrust. The continuous advancements in defense technology and strategic materials are important for UPSC, especially in the context of national security and indigenous capabilities.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The Majorana-based chip refers to an approach in topological quantum computing that utilizes Majorana fermions, exotic quantum particles, which are expected to provide greater stability and reduced error rates, crucial for enabling robust quantum computing. Statement II is incorrect. While Amazon Web Services (AWS) is involved in quantum computing (e.g., Amazon Braket), the Majorana-based chip is primarily being developed by Microsoft, in collaboration with researchers at Station Q. Statement III is correct. Deep learning is indeed a specialized subset of machine learning. It employs multi-layered neural networks to learn from vast amounts of data, excelling in tasks like image recognition and natural language processing. Advancements in quantum computing and artificial intelligence are rapidly evolving fields with significant implications for technology and society, making them highly relevant for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-engineered proteins designed to mimic the immune system's natural antibodies. Statement II is correct. mAbs function by binding specifically to certain antigens (e.g., on viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells). This targeted binding can neutralize threats, mark cells for destruction, or block harmful biological processes, thereby stimulating or modulating immunological function. Statement III is correct. Monoclonal antibodies have proven effective in treating various viral infections, including COVID-19, Ebola, and the Nipah virus. Their precision targeting makes them powerful therapeutic tools. For instance, during Nipah outbreaks, mAbs have been used for compassionate treatment. The development and application of advanced biotechnologies like mAbs are crucial for public health and disease management, making them a recurring and important topic for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

All three statements are incorrect. Statement I is incorrect because viruses are abundant and active in ocean waters. Marine viruses, particularly bacteriophages, are the most numerous biological entities in the ocean and play crucial roles in regulating microbial populations and nutrient cycles. Statement II is incorrect. Bacteriophages are a specific type of virus that infects and replicates within bacterial cells. They are ubiquitous and play a significant role in controlling bacterial populations. Statement III is incorrect. Viruses frequently alter the transcriptional activity of their host cells upon infection. They manipulate the host's gene expression machinery to facilitate viral replication and suppress host defenses, often by interacting with host transcription factors. Understanding the fundamental nature and impact of viruses is essential, especially given their role in diseases and ecosystems, making this a relevant topic for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I asserts that activated carbon is an effective tool for removing pollutants. Statement II is correct: Activated carbon's effectiveness stems from its highly porous structure, which provides a large surface area and strong adsorptive capacity, particularly for heavy metals. This property directly explains why it's good at removing pollutants. Statement III is correct: Activated carbon can be synthesized from various carbon-rich environmental wastes, such as coconut shells, wood, or agricultural residues, making it a sustainable and attractive option. This ease of synthesis from waste also contributes to its attractiveness as a remediation tool. Both statements II and III provide valid reasons and explanations for the utility and attractiveness of activated carbon as described in Statement I. The use of activated carbon in pollution control and waste management is a significant environmental topic for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct: The cement industry is a major contributor to global CO2 emissions, accounting for approximately 8% of anthropogenic CO2, which is indeed more than 5%. Statement II is correct: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone as raw materials in cement manufacturing. This process, along with the energy required, contributes to CO2 emissions. Statement III is correct: During clinker production, limestone (calcium carbonate) undergoes calcination at high temperatures, converting it into lime (calcium oxide) and releasing a significant amount of CO2. Both the chemical process (calcination of limestone) and the energy-intensive heating of raw materials like silica-bearing clay contribute substantially to the cement industry's high CO2 emissions, thus explaining Statement I. The environmental impact of industrial processes and strategies for decarbonization are crucial topics for UPSC.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct: India indeed refrained from signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health. Statement II is incorrect: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding call to action, not a legally binding declaration. Therefore, signing it would not make decarbonizing the health sector mandatory in a legal sense, though it would imply a commitment. Statement III is correct: India expressed concerns that commitments to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, particularly for cooling applications in the health sector, could impede its ability to meet the growing demands for medical services, especially in remote and underserved areas. This concern about compromising the resilience of its healthcare system is a valid reason for India's decision not to sign, thus explaining Statement I. Climate change negotiations and India's stance on international environmental agreements are highly relevant for UPSC.

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Scientific studies, particularly those using over a century of data, confirm that melting ice and groundwater depletion are indeed causing shifts in Earth's rotation and axis, leading to slightly longer days. Statement II is correct: Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do bombard Earth's outermost atmosphere with significant energy, causing phenomena like auroras and disrupting communications. However, this energy primarily affects the thermosphere and magnetic field, and does not significantly influence Earth's rotation or axis. Therefore, it does not explain Statement I. Statement III is correct: As polar ice melts, the water redistributes towards the equator. This shift in mass away from the poles, similar to a spinning ice skater extending their arms, causes the Earth's rotation to slow down and its axis to shift. This directly explains Statement I. Thus, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III explains Statement I. The impact of climate change on Earth's physical processes is a key environmental topic for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is indeed a central topic in global climate discussions due to its role in enabling international cooperation and enhancing climate ambition. Statement II is correct: Article 6.2 and 6.4 of the Paris Agreement establish frameworks for international carbon markets, allowing countries to trade emission reductions. This is a key reason for its frequent discussion. Statement III is correct: Article 6.8 specifically addresses non-market approaches to cooperation, promoting strategies like joint mitigation and adaptation efforts that do not involve carbon trading. Both market-based (carbon markets) and non-market-based strategies are crucial mechanisms outlined in Article 6 for countries to achieve their climate targets, making it a complex and frequently discussed aspect of the Paris Agreement. Therefore, both statements II and III are correct and collectively explain why Statement I is true. International climate agreements and their mechanisms are highly relevant for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

The 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific' was launched by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) at COP28. This initiative aims to mobilize significant investment, targeting at least $2 billion, into programs that integrate nature-based solutions. The hub focuses on attracting capital from financial markets and private sources, utilizing various financing mechanisms such as guarantees, impact-linked payments, and blended finance to de-risk nature-based projects. Its goal is to address climate change and biodiversity loss by promoting sustainable investments in the Asia and Pacific region. The role of international financial institutions in climate finance and sustainable development is a recurring theme in UPSC examinations.

Answer: C

Explanation

Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that extracts carbon dioxide (CO2) directly from the ambient air. Statement I is correct: The captured CO2 can be permanently stored in geological formations, effectively sequestering carbon from the atmosphere. Statement II is correct: The captured CO2 can be utilized as a feedstock for various industrial applications. This includes its use in the production of plastics, cement, and carbon fibers, as well as in food processing for carbonation (e.g., beverages) or as a preservative. Statement III is correct: DAC-captured CO2 can be combined with hydrogen (produced from renewable electricity) to synthesize low-carbon fuels, often referred to as Power-to-Liquid (PtL) or e-fuels. These synthetic fuels are being explored as a sustainable alternative for hard-to-decarbonize sectors like aviation. All three statements accurately describe potential applications of Direct Air Capture technology. Emerging climate technologies and their applications are important for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), also known as the Gooty tarantula, is a spider, not a crustacean. It is carnivorous, primarily feeding on insects, not omnivorous. Statement II is correct. Its natural habitat in India is highly restricted, primarily limited to specific deciduous forest areas in Andhra Pradesh, making it critically endangered. Statement III is correct. In its natural habitat, the Gooty tarantula is an arboreal species, meaning it lives in trees, often found in holes or crevices of tall trees. This adaptation allows it to hunt and seek shelter in the forest canopy. The conservation status of unique species and their ecological roles are important topics for UPSC, especially when they are critically endangered and endemic to India.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. In 2022, India's per capita CO2 emissions were approximately 2 tonnes, which is significantly higher than 0.5 t CO2/capita, although still less than half the global average. Statement II is correct. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region, reflecting its large population and growing energy demands. Statement III is correct. Electricity and heat production, heavily reliant on fossil fuels like coal, constitute the largest source of CO2 emissions in India. This sector's emissions are a major focus for India's climate mitigation strategies. Understanding India's emission profile and its position in global climate efforts is crucial for UPSC, aligning with topics on climate change, energy policy, and sustainable development.

Answer: B

Explanation

Pair I: Cassava is indeed a woody shrub, cultivated for its starchy roots. This is correctly matched. Pair II: Ginger is a perennial herb that produces a pseudostem from its tightly packed leaf bases. This is correctly matched. Pair III: Malabar spinach is a fast-growing herbaceous climber, valued for its edible leaves and stems. This is correctly matched. Pair IV: Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub. It spreads rapidly through underground rhizomes. This is incorrectly matched. Pair V: Papaya is botanically classified as a large herb with a soft, non-woody stem, despite its tree-like appearance. It is not a woody shrub. This is incorrectly matched. Therefore, only three pairs (Cassava, Ginger, Malabar spinach) are correctly matched. Basic biological classification and common plant characteristics are fundamental knowledge relevant to the UPSC syllabus, often appearing in the Science & Technology or Environment & Ecology sections.

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Scientists estimate that roughly half of the Earth's oxygen is produced by the oceans, primarily by marine plankton. Tropical rainforests, while significant, produce less oxygen than the oceans. Statement II is correct. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria, such as Prochlorococcus, are indeed responsible for producing approximately 50% of the world's oxygen through photosynthesis. Statement III is incorrect. While dissolved oxygen is highest in surface waters, the concentration of oxygen in water is significantly lower than in atmospheric air. For example, well-oxygenated surface water might contain around 8 mg O2/l, whereas atmospheric air contains about 210 mg O2/l. Therefore, only statement II is correct. Understanding global biogeochemical cycles and the role of different ecosystems in maintaining Earth's atmosphere is a fundamental aspect of Environment & Ecology for UPSC.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy, often called the 'Father of Indian Renaissance', deeply respected traditional Eastern philosophical systems, particularly the Vedanta. He sought to reform Hinduism from within, drawing upon its monotheistic aspects. Statement II is also correct. While appreciating traditional wisdom, Roy was a strong advocate for modern thought. He urged his countrymen to embrace rationalism, scientific inquiry, and the principles of human dignity and social equality, believing these were essential for India's regeneration. He aimed to synthesize the best of Eastern and Western thought. His efforts to reform society, promote education, and advocate for human rights are central to understanding the socio-religious reform movements of the 19th century, a key area in UPSC Modern History.

Answer: C

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) had a comprehensive program. Statement I is correct: Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth were key aspects. Lawyers gave up their practice, and foreign goods, especially cloth, were publicly burned. Statement II is correct: Strict non-violence was the foundational principle of the movement, emphasized by Mahatma Gandhi. Statement III is incorrect: The program called for the surrender of titles and honorary positions, not their retention without public use. This was a symbolic rejection of British authority. Statement IV is correct: The establishment of national schools, colleges, and private panchayat courts for settling disputes was part of the constructive program, aiming to create alternative Indian institutions. Therefore, three of the four listed items were part of the Non-Cooperation Programme. Understanding the strategies and components of major nationalist movements is crucial for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: B

Explanation

The term 'Araghatta' refers to an ancient Indian irrigation device, specifically a waterwheel. It was characterized by a large wheel with earthen pots or buckets attached to its outer rim or spokes. As the wheel rotated, these pots would scoop water from a well or river and then empty it into a channel at a higher level, facilitating irrigation. This mechanism was often powered by animals, typically bullocks, or sometimes by human labor. The 'Araghatta' represents an important technological advancement in ancient Indian agriculture, enabling more efficient water management. Understanding such historical technological developments is relevant for UPSC Ancient History, particularly in the context of economic and social life.

Answer: A

Explanation

Mahendravarman I, a prominent Pallava king who ruled in the early 7th century CE, was known for adopting several distinctive titles. Among these were 'Mattavilasa' (meaning 'Drunkard in Sport' or 'Pleasure-loving'), after his satirical play 'Mattavilasa Prahasana'; 'Vichitrachitta' (meaning 'Curious-minded' or 'Innovative-minded'), reflecting his diverse interests and innovations in art and architecture; and 'Gunabhara' (meaning 'Bearer of Virtues'). He was a patron of art and architecture, initiating rock-cut cave temples, and was also a scholar and musician. His reign marked a significant period in South Indian history and culture. Knowledge of important rulers and their contributions, including their titles, is a standard part of UPSC Ancient History.

Answer: B

Explanation

Fa-hien (Faxian), the renowned Chinese Buddhist monk and pilgrim, traveled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II, who ruled the Gupta Empire from approximately 375 to 415 CE. Fa-hien's primary objective was to collect Buddhist scriptures and visit sacred Buddhist sites. His travelogue, 'A Record of Buddhist Kingdoms,' provides invaluable insights into the social, religious, and administrative conditions of India during the Gupta period, particularly focusing on the Gangetic plains. Chandragupta II's reign is often considered the golden age of the Gupta Empire, marked by significant advancements in art, literature, and science. Knowledge of foreign travelers and their accounts is a crucial aspect of UPSC Ancient History.

Answer: C

Explanation

Rajendra I, the illustrious Chola emperor who reigned from 1014 to 1044 CE, is credited with leading a remarkable overseas naval expedition against the powerful maritime kingdom of Srivijaya. Srivijaya controlled key trade routes in the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands. Rajendra I's campaign, launched around 1025 CE, was a strategic move to assert Chola dominance over lucrative maritime trade and to counter Srivijaya's influence. This successful military venture demonstrated the formidable naval power of the Cholas and expanded their sphere of influence across Southeast Asia. Understanding the Chola dynasty's maritime prowess and its interactions with Southeast Asian kingdoms is important for UPSC Medieval History.

Answer: B

Explanation

Pair I: Asmaka was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, uniquely located in South India on the banks of the Godavari river. This pair is correctly matched. Pair II: Kamboja was situated in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent. The Vipas river (modern Beas) flows through the Punjab region. While both are in the broader northwest, Kamboja's core was generally further west than the main course of the Vipas. This pair is not correctly matched. Pair III: Avanti was located in West-Central India, with its capital Ujjain in present-day Madhya Pradesh. The Mahanadi river flows through Central and Eastern India (Chhattisgarh and Odisha). This pair is not correctly matched. Pair IV: Kosala was located in the Awadh region of present-day Uttar Pradesh, and the Sarayu river flows through this region, notably past Ayodhya. This pair is correctly matched. Therefore, only two pairs (Asmaka: Godavari and Kosala: Sarayu) are correctly matched. Knowledge of ancient Indian geography, including Mahajanapadas and associated rivers, is fundamental for UPSC Ancient History.

Answer: D

Explanation

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a pioneering institution for music training, was established by the renowned Hindustani musician Vishnu Digambar Paluskar on May 5, 1901, in Lahore. Paluskar was instrumental in making classical music accessible to the masses, moving it from the exclusive domain of royal courts and temples to public education. This institution played a crucial role in the revival and popularization of Indian classical music. While other Gandharva Mahavidyalayas were later established in various cities, including Delhi, Lahore holds the distinction of hosting the first one. Understanding the contributions of key figures and institutions to Indian art and culture is important for UPSC.

Answer: B

Explanation

In the Mauryan administration, particularly during Ashoka's reign, the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' were significant officers operating at the district level. The Pradeshika was typically the overall in-charge of a district, responsible for general administration, law and order, and revenue collection. The Rajukas were primarily concerned with surveying, land assessment, and judicial functions, often having considerable authority over rural populations. The Yuktas were junior officers, assisting the Pradeshikas and Rajukas, mainly involved in secretarial work and accounting. These officials played a crucial role in maintaining the centralized administrative structure of the Mauryan Empire. Understanding the administrative hierarchy and roles of officials in ancient Indian empires is a key aspect of UPSC Ancient History.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. At the Nagpur session in December 1920, the Indian National Congress formally adopted the Non-Cooperation Movement and changed its creed to the attainment of 'Swaraj' (self-rule) by all legitimate and peaceful means. This marked a significant shift in the Congress's objectives. Statement II is also correct. Mahatma Gandhi outlined a phased implementation of the movement. He promised Swaraj within a year if the non-cooperation program was fully implemented. He also stated that if Swaraj was not achieved within that timeframe or if the government resorted to severe repression, the movement would escalate to civil disobedience, including non-payment of taxes. Both statements accurately reflect the objectives and strategy of the Non-Cooperation Movement. Understanding the evolution of nationalist demands and strategies is crucial for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: B

Explanation

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that collect funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing in accordance with a defined investment policy. They are distinct from traditional investment options like stocks and bonds. Under SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012: Hedge Funds (II) are classified as Category III AIFs, employing diverse and complex trading strategies. Venture Capital (IV) funds are classified as Category I AIFs, investing in start-up or early-stage ventures. Bonds (I) and Stocks (III) are traditional financial instruments, not AIFs themselves, though AIFs may invest in them. Therefore, only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are treated as Alternative Investment Funds. Understanding different investment vehicles and their regulatory frameworks is important for UPSC Economy.

Answer: D

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) generates income primarily through its monetary policy operations and management of foreign exchange reserves. I. Buying and selling Government bonds (Open Market Operations) is a major source of income, as the RBI earns interest on these bonds and can profit from price changes. II. Buying and selling foreign currency is also a significant source of income, as the RBI manages India's foreign exchange reserves and can profit from currency fluctuations. V. Printing and distributing currency notes generates seigniorage, which is the profit made by a government by issuing currency, as the face value of currency is typically higher than its cost of production. III. Pension fund management is generally handled by specialized entities like EPFO or PFRDA, not the RBI as a source of its own income. IV. The RBI does not lend directly to private companies; its lending is primarily to commercial banks and financial institutions as part of its monetary policy. Therefore, I, II, and V are sources of income for the RBI. Understanding the functions and financial operations of the RBI is fundamental for UPSC Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

Row I: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. However, it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. So, this row is incorrectly matched. Row II: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, and other allied acts. It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This row is correctly matched. Row III: The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGS&DM) is part of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Ministry of Finance. It develops and manages IT systems for customs, GST, and central excise. While it uses data analytics, the specific function of 'carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders' is more precisely associated with the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), which also functions under CBIC. Thus, the description of functions for DGS&DM is not fully accurate, and the row is considered incorrectly matched in this context. Therefore, only one row is correctly matched. Understanding the structure and functions of key government bodies is important for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) framework was introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI mandates listed companies to submit BRSR as part of their annual reports, replacing the older Business Responsibility Report (BRR). Statement II is correct. The BRSR aims to provide quantitative and standardized disclosures on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters. These disclosures are largely non-financial in nature, focusing on aspects like resource consumption, emissions, employee well-being, community engagement, and governance practices, rather than traditional financial performance metrics. The BRSR helps investors make informed decisions by assessing a company's sustainability performance. ESG reporting and corporate governance are increasingly important topics for UPSC Economy.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. While income directly derived from agricultural operations (e.g., cultivation) is exempt from income tax in India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, dairy farming, and wool rearing is generally considered non-agricultural income and is taxable. These activities are treated as business income. Statement II is correct. Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, rural agricultural land is specifically excluded from the definition of a 'capital asset' if it meets certain criteria (e.g., not located within specified municipal limits or within a certain distance from them). Consequently, any gains from the sale of such rural agricultural land are not subject to capital gains tax. This distinction between agricultural and non-agricultural income, and the tax treatment of agricultural land, is a recurring theme in UPSC Economy and taxation policy.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023, becoming its 14th member. The MSP is a US-led initiative aimed at securing critical mineral supply chains. Statement II is incorrect. While India has identified 30 critical minerals, it is not resource-rich in all of them. India remains significantly dependent on imports for several critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and vanadium, as it lacks proven domestic reserves for all identified minerals. Statement III is correct. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical and strategic minerals. This amendment aims to boost domestic exploration and production of these vital resources. The strategic importance of critical minerals for India's economic growth and national security makes this a significant topic for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Bondholders generally face lower risk than stockholders. Statement II is correct: Bondholders provide debt capital to a company, making them creditors or lenders, while stockholders purchase equity, making them part-owners of the company. This fundamental difference in their relationship with the company contributes to the risk differential. Statement III is correct: In the event of a company's liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders (creditors) have a higher claim on the company's assets and are paid back before stockholders (owners). This prioritization significantly reduces the risk for bondholders compared to stockholders. Both statements II and III accurately describe the nature of bondholders and stockholders and their respective positions in a company's capital structure, directly explaining why bondholders are at lower risk. Understanding financial instruments and investment risks is crucial for UPSC Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. India has indeed seen a significant boom in equity options trading, accounting for a very large portion, sometimes over 80%, of global equity options contracts traded. This reflects high retail participation and liquidity in the Indian derivatives market. Statement II is correct. India's stock market has experienced rapid growth, and in early 2024, its market capitalization surpassed Hong Kong's, making it the world's fourth-largest stock market. Statement III is incorrect. India has a robust regulatory body, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which actively regulates the securities market. SEBI issues warnings to investors about the risks of options trading and takes action against unregistered financial advisors to protect small investors. Therefore, statements I and II are correct. The growth and regulation of India's financial markets are important topics for UPSC Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct: A circular economy aims to keep resources in use for as long as possible, extract the maximum value from them whilst in use, then recover and regenerate products and materials at the end of each service life. This approach inherently reduces greenhouse gas emissions. Statement II is correct: By emphasizing reuse, repair, and recycling, a circular economy significantly reduces the demand for virgin raw materials. Extracting and processing raw materials are often energy-intensive and generate substantial emissions. Statement III is correct: A core principle of the circular economy is to design out waste and pollution. This means optimizing production processes to minimize waste generation and maximize resource efficiency. Both reducing raw material use (Statement II) and reducing waste (Statement III) directly contribute to lower energy consumption and fewer emissions associated with extraction, manufacturing, and waste disposal, thereby explaining Statement I. The circular economy is a key concept in sustainable development and environmental policy, making it highly relevant for UPSC.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Capital receipts are those government receipts that either create a liability (like borrowings) or lead to a reduction in the government's assets (like disinvestment). Statement II is correct. Borrowings create a future repayment liability for the government, and disinvestment (selling government assets like shares in PSUs) reduces the government's financial assets. Both are therefore classified as capital receipts. Statement III is incorrect. Interest received on loans given by the government is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. It is a regular income for the government and does not create a liability for the government; rather, it is income from an asset (the loan given). Understanding the components of the government budget, particularly the distinction between revenue and capital receipts, is fundamental for UPSC Economy.

Answer: B

Explanation

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance. Let's check the membership status of the listed countries: Bulgaria (III) became a NATO member in 2004. Croatia (IV) joined NATO in 2009. Sweden (V) officially became the 32nd member of NATO in March 2024. North Macedonia (VI) joined NATO in 2020. Austria (I) is a neutral country and not a NATO member. Serbia (II) is also not a NATO member. Therefore, four of the listed countries (Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia) are members of NATO. The expansion of NATO, particularly in response to geopolitical events, is a significant development in international relations and a recurring topic for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

The Andes Mountains are the world's longest continental mountain range, stretching along the western edge of South America. They pass through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. From the given list: I. Bolivia: Yes, the Andes pass through Bolivia. III. Colombia: Yes, the Andes pass through Colombia. IV. Ecuador: Yes, the Andes pass through Ecuador. VI. Venezuela: Yes, the Andes pass through Venezuela. II. Brazil: The Andes do not pass through Brazil. V. Paraguay: The Andes do not pass through Paraguay. Therefore, the Andes Mountains pass through five of the listed countries. Geographical features and their distribution across continents are fundamental topics in UPSC Geography.

Answer: D

Explanation

Let's examine the location of each water body relative to the equator: I. Lake Tanganyika: Located in East Africa, it is one of the African Great Lakes. It lies south of the equator, forming a boundary between Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Burundi, and Zambia. The equator does not pass through it. II. Lake Tonlé Sap: This is a large freshwater lake in Cambodia, Southeast Asia. Cambodia is entirely north of the equator. The equator does not pass through it. III. Patos Lagoon: Located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil, it is the largest lagoon in Brazil. Brazil is crossed by the equator in its northern part, but Patos Lagoon is situated in the extreme southeastern part of Brazil, far south of the equator. Therefore, the equator does not pass through any of the three mentioned water bodies. Knowledge of world geography and major physical features is essential for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is correct. India holds a dominant position in the global turmeric market, being the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric worldwide. It accounts for over 62% of the world's trade in turmeric. Statement II is correct. India is known for its rich biodiversity in turmeric, with more than 30 distinct varieties cultivated across various states. Statement III is correct. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are indeed among the major turmeric-producing states in India, contributing significantly to the country's overall output. All three statements are accurate regarding turmeric in India. The agricultural sector, including the production and trade of major crops and spices, is a significant area of focus for UPSC, often linking to economic geography and government initiatives.

Answer: C

Explanation

All three statements provide evidence supporting the theory of continental drift, as proposed by Alfred Wegener. I. The matching of ancient rock belts: Geological similarities, particularly the 2-billion-year-old rock formations along the Brazilian coast and Western Africa, strongly suggest that these landmasses were once contiguous. II. Placer gold deposits: The presence of rich placer gold deposits in the Ghana coast, without a clear source rock in the immediate vicinity, is explained by the theory that these deposits originated from gold-bearing veins in the Brazil plateau when South America and Africa were joined. III. Gondwana system of sediments: The widespread occurrence of the Gondwana system of sediments, including thick tillite (glacial deposits), across India, Africa, Antarctica, Australia, and South America, indicates a shared geological history and extensive glaciation when these landmasses were part of the supercontinent Gondwana. These pieces of evidence collectively support the idea that continents have moved over geological time. Understanding fundamental geological theories like continental drift is essential for UPSC Geography.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Dust particles are generally more concentrated in subtropical and temperate regions compared to equatorial and polar areas. This is due to several factors, including the presence of large desert areas in subtropical zones, which are major sources of dust, and the atmospheric circulation patterns that transport dust. Polar regions have less exposed land and lower temperatures, limiting dust generation, while equatorial regions experience frequent rainfall that washes dust out of the atmosphere. Statement II is incorrect. Subtropical and temperate areas often experience significant dry winds, such as trade winds and westerlies, which can pick up and transport dust from arid and semi-arid regions. The presence of dry winds actually contributes to higher dust concentrations, rather than indicating less dry winds. Therefore, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. Understanding atmospheric composition and dynamics is a core topic in UPSC Geography.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. In January, during the Northern Hemisphere winter, landmasses cool down much faster and to a greater extent than oceans. This causes isotherms (lines of equal temperature) to bend equatorward (southward) over continents, indicating colder temperatures. Conversely, oceans retain heat longer, making them relatively warmer, which causes isotherms to bend poleward (northward) over oceanic areas. Statement II is correct. This differential heating and cooling capacity is precisely why the isotherms behave as described in Statement I. In winter, the air over oceans is indeed warmer than over landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere due to the high specific heat capacity of water and the influence of warm ocean currents (like the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift). Therefore, Statement II correctly explains Statement I. Understanding global temperature distribution and the factors influencing isotherms is fundamental for UPSC Geography.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Chalk is indeed known for its high permeability, allowing water to pass through easily, while clay is characterized by its low permeability, making it largely impermeable to water. Statement II is correct: Chalk is highly porous, meaning it contains many small interconnected spaces. This porosity allows it to absorb and store water, which contributes to its high permeability. This statement correctly explains why chalk is permeable. Statement III is incorrect: Clay is porous; it has many tiny pore spaces between its very fine particles. However, these pores are often poorly interconnected or extremely small, resulting in very low permeability, meaning water struggles to flow through it despite its porosity. Therefore, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I, but Statement III is incorrect. Understanding rock properties like porosity and permeability is a fundamental concept in UPSC Geography and geology.

Answer: C

Explanation

All three statements are correct and describe the crucial role of Earth's atmosphere in regulating temperature. I. Without the atmosphere, Earth would experience extreme temperature fluctuations, with surface temperatures dropping drastically below freezing, similar to the Moon. The atmosphere acts as an insulating blanket. II. The atmosphere, through the natural greenhouse effect, absorbs and traps outgoing longwave radiation from the Earth's surface. This trapped heat is vital for maintaining our planet's average temperature at a level suitable for life. III. Certain atmospheric gases, known as greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor, are particularly effective at absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation. This property is central to the atmosphere's ability to trap heat. Understanding the composition and functions of the atmosphere is a fundamental topic in UPSC Geography and Environment & Ecology.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) aims to enhance the productivity of indigenous bovine breeds. A significant portion of low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless laborers in rural areas. By improving the genetic merit and productivity of these animals, the mission directly contributes to the economic upliftment and livelihood security of the rural poor. Statement II is correct. The RGM was launched with the primary objective of promoting indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation. It emphasizes a scientific and holistic approach, including the use of advanced technologies like artificial insemination with high genetic merit bulls, to improve milk production and preserve native breeds. Both statements accurately reflect the objectives and impact of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission. Government schemes related to agriculture, rural development, and animal husbandry are important for UPSC.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Article 243B of the Constitution, inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act, mandates a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. However, it explicitly states that states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs are not obligated to constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. Thus, intermediate Panchayats do not exist in all states. Statement II is incorrect. Article 243F(1)(a) specifies that a person must have attained the age of 21 years to be eligible for election as a member of a Panchayat. The age of thirty years is not a requirement. Statement III is incorrect. Article 243-I mandates the Governor of a State (not the Chief Minister) to constitute a Finance Commission every five years. This commission reviews the financial position of Panchayats at all levels and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of state taxes and duties. Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct option is D. Understanding the constitutional provisions related to Panchayati Raj is fundamental for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is correct. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) consists of seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. This membership has remained constant till January 2025. Statement II is incorrect. BIMSTEC came into existence with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration on June 6, 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration in 1999. Statement III is incorrect. The founding members of BIMSTEC (initially BIST-EC) were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Myanmar joined in 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal joined in 2004. Nepal was not a founding member. Statement IV is incorrect. While India leads the Security sector (including Counter-Terrorism, Disaster Management, and Energy), Nepal is the lead country for the 'People-to-People Contact' sector, which includes tourism. Therefore, only statement I is correct. Regional groupings like BIMSTEC are important for UPSC International Relations, especially concerning India's neighborhood policy and regional cooperation.

Answer: C

Explanation

The Gandhi Peace Prize is an international award instituted by the Government of India in 1995 to honor Mahatma Gandhi's ideals. The jury for selecting the recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize is composed of: II. The Prime Minister of India (who serves as the Chairperson). III. The Chief Justice of India. IV. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Additionally, two eminent persons are nominated by the Prime Minister. The President of India (I) is not a member of the jury. Therefore, statements II, III, and IV are correct. Awards and honors, especially those with national significance and a distinguished selection process, are relevant for UPSC Art & Culture and Current Affairs.

Answer: D

Explanation

GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS), jointly developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India. Statement I is correct: GAGAN is designed to enhance the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals over the Indian airspace, improving positioning accuracy from 20 meters to 1-2 meters. Statement II is correct: By providing highly accurate and reliable navigation signals, GAGAN enables more uniform and high-quality air traffic management, especially for precision approaches and landings. Statement III is incorrect: While primarily developed for aviation, GAGAN offers benefits beyond this sector. Its precise positioning capabilities are valuable for other modes of transportation like railways, road transport, and maritime navigation, as well as for applications in agriculture, surveying, and disaster management. Therefore, statements I and II are correct. Space technology and its applications, particularly indigenous navigation systems, are important for UPSC Science & Technology.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by France and India. This event was designed to build upon the progress and discussions from previous international AI governance summits, specifically the Bletchley Park Summit (2023) and the Seoul Summit (2024), aiming to further global cooperation on AI development and regulation. Statement II is incorrect. While the summit did introduce a declaration on 'inclusive and sustainable AI,' both the United States and the United Kingdom declined to sign it. Their refusal was reportedly due to concerns regarding national security and the perceived inadequacy of the declaration in addressing global AI governance comprehensively. Therefore, only statement I is correct. International cooperation on emerging technologies like AI is a significant topic for UPSC, covering Science & Technology and International Relations.

Answer: D

Explanation

All four pairs are correctly matched as per UN declarations: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer: The UN General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer to highlight women's crucial role in agrifood systems. II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: The United Nations declared 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism to promote sustainable development through tourism. III. International Year of Peace and Trust: The General Assembly adopted a resolution declaring 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust, encouraging inclusive dialogue and negotiation for peace. IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: The General Assembly declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence, coinciding with the close approach of asteroid 99942 Apophis, to raise global awareness about asteroids and planetary defense. UN-declared international years are often used by UPSC to test general awareness and knowledge of global initiatives.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was indeed held in Kazan, Russia, from October 22–24, 2024, under Russia's chairship. This was also the first summit with the expanded BRICS membership. Statement II is correct. Indonesia officially joined BRICS, becoming the first Southeast Asian member. Its entry was endorsed by BRICS leaders at the 2023 Johannesburg summit, and its full membership was confirmed by the 2025 BRICS presidency holder, Brazil. Statement III is incorrect. The actual theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security,' not 'Strengthening Multiculturalism.' The focus was on global governance and cooperation among nations. Therefore, statements I and II are correct. BRICS expansion and its role in global governance are significant topics for UPSC International Relations.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, extends its jurisdiction to public servants of India, including those posted outside India, particularly concerning matters related to foreign contributions or donations. Statement II is incorrect. While the Chairperson or a Member cannot be an MP or MLA, the Chairperson is not exclusively the Chief Justice of India (incumbent or retired). A former Supreme Court Judge or an eminent person with 25 years of experience in relevant fields can also be the Chairperson. Statement III is correct. As per Section 3(3)(c) of the Lokpal Act, the Chairperson or a Member must be at least 45 years of age on the date of assuming office. Statement IV is incorrect. The Lokpal Act does allow for inquiries into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, though with specific safeguards and conditions, such as requiring a full bench approval and excluding matters of national security or public order. Therefore, only statement III is correct. The Lokpal's powers and composition are important for UPSC Polity & Governance, especially in the context of anti-corruption mechanisms.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup 2025 was indeed held in New Delhi, India, concluding on January 19. Statement II is incorrect. In the men's final, India beat Nepal, but the score was 54-36, not 78-40. Statement III is incorrect. In the women's final, India beat Nepal, but the score was 78-40, not 54-36. The scores mentioned in statements II and III are swapped. Therefore, only statement I is correct. Sporting events, especially those involving indigenous Indian sports gaining international recognition, are relevant for UPSC Art & Culture and Current Affairs.

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. D. Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest chess champion in December 2024 by defeating Ding Liren of China in the World Chess Championship, not in the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad. The 45th Chess Olympiad saw the Indian contingent win gold in both open and women's categories. Statement II is correct. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record for becoming the world's youngest-ever Grandmaster. He achieved this title in July 2021 at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, surpassing Sergey Karjakin's long-standing record. Therefore, only statement II is correct. Significant achievements in sports, especially those with international recognition and records, are relevant for UPSC Current Affairs and Art & Culture.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Rare Earth Elements (REEs) like europium, terbium, and yttrium are indeed crucial components in the manufacture of flat-panel displays, including televisions, screens, and computer monitors. They are used in phosphors to produce the vibrant colors seen on these screens. Statement II is correct. Many rare earth elements possess phosphorescent (or luminescent) properties, meaning they can emit light when excited by energy. This characteristic is precisely why they are used in displays. When electrons or UV light excite the REE compounds, they emit light in specific colors, which is essential for creating the red, green, and blue pixels in screens. Therefore, Statement II correctly explains why rare earth elements are used in displays as mentioned in Statement I. The strategic importance and unique properties of REEs are significant for UPSC Science & Technology and Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The National Rail Plan (NRP) prepared by Indian Railways aims to create a 'future-ready' railway system by 2030, not 2028. Its objective is to increase the modal share of railways in freight to 45%. Statement II is incorrect. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system that has been indigenously developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industry, not with Germany. It is a cost-effective Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Statement III is correct. The Kavach system does utilize Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags fitted along the tracks, including in station sections, to track train positions and ensure safe operations. Since the question asks for statements that are *not* correct, I and II are the answers. Railway safety and technological advancements are important for UPSC, especially in the context of infrastructure development and public safety.

Answer: C

Explanation

All three listed space missions encourage and support microgravity research. I. Axiom-4: This is a private spaceflight mission to the International Space Station (ISS). Missions to the ISS, whether governmental or private, routinely conduct microgravity research across various disciplines, including medicine, materials science, and biology, leveraging the unique space environment. II. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment): This is an Indian mission primarily aimed at demonstrating autonomous docking capabilities. While its main goal is technological, such missions often include opportunities for microgravity studies, especially concerning the behavior of fluids, materials, and systems in orbit. III. Gaganyaan: India's first human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan, aims to send astronauts into space. A key scientific objective of human spaceflight missions is to conduct microgravity research, particularly in life sciences, space medicine (studying human adaptation to space), and materials science. Therefore, all three missions support microgravity research. Space exploration and its scientific applications are significant topics for UPSC Science & Technology.

Answer: B

Explanation

Let's evaluate each pair: I. Dornier-228: This is a versatile twin-engine turboprop aircraft used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard primarily for maritime surveillance, patrol, and utility roles. So, 'Maritime patrol aircraft' is a correct description. II. IL-76: The Ilyushin Il-76 is a large, four-engine turbofan strategic airlifter, used for heavy cargo and troop transport. It is not a supersonic combat aircraft. So, this description is incorrect. III. C-17 Globemaster III: This is a large military transport aircraft developed by Boeing, used by the Indian Air Force for strategic and tactical airlift missions, including carrying heavy equipment and troops. So, 'Military transport aircraft' is a correct description. Therefore, two pairs (Dornier-228 and C-17 Globemaster III) are correctly matched. Knowledge of defense equipment and capabilities is important for UPSC, particularly in the context of national security and indigenous defense production.

Answer: A

Explanation

Artificial rainfall, commonly known as cloud seeding, is a weather modification technique used to increase precipitation or reduce air pollution. The most common substances used for cloud seeding are silver iodide (AgI) and, less frequently, potassium iodide (KI). These compounds are dispersed into clouds, where they act as ice nuclei or cloud condensation nuclei. They provide a surface for water vapor to condense or freeze upon, facilitating the formation of ice crystals or water droplets that can then grow large enough to fall as rain or snow. Other substances like dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) can also be used. The use of such technologies for environmental management, especially in addressing air pollution, is a relevant topic for UPSC Environment & Ecology.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. While the President's pardoning power under Article 72 is an executive function, the Supreme Court has clarified in various judgments (e.g., Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh) that its exercise is not beyond judicial scrutiny. Judicial review is limited to grounds such as arbitrariness, mala fide intent, or non-application of mind, but the judiciary cannot delve into the merits of the decision itself. Statement II is incorrect. The President of India exercises the pardoning power on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as stipulated by Article 74(1) of the Constitution. The President does not act independently or at their own discretion in this matter. The Ministry of Home Affairs processes mercy petitions and forwards recommendations to the President. Therefore, only statement I is correct. Understanding the President's powers and their constitutional limitations, especially judicial review, is crucial for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. As per the second proviso to Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker does not vacate their office immediately upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. They continue in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha. This ensures continuity. Statement II is incorrect. The Constitution does not mandate that a Speaker must resign from their political party upon election. While conventions in some parliamentary democracies (like the UK) suggest impartiality, in India, Speakers generally retain their party membership. The Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule) even provides an exemption for the Speaker if they voluntarily give up party membership. Statement III is correct. Article 94(c) states that the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority), and such a resolution requires at least 14 days' prior notice. Therefore, statements I and III are correct. The office of the Speaker and its constitutional provisions are fundamental for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Under Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the authority to decide on questions of disqualification of a Member of Parliament on grounds of defection rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman of Rajya Sabha), not the President. The President's role in disqualification arises under Article 102, based on the Election Commission's advice, for other grounds of disqualification. Statement II is incorrect. While the original Constitution did not explicitly mention 'political party,' the term was formally introduced into the Constitution by the Fifty-second Amendment Act, 1985, which added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). This Schedule makes multiple references to 'political party' in defining grounds for disqualification. Therefore, both statements are incorrect. The Anti-Defection Law and constitutional provisions related to disqualification are frequently debated and are crucial for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Under Section 15(1) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), State Governments are explicitly empowered to make rules for regulating the grant of mining leases and other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals within their territories. This grants them significant control over minor mineral extraction. Statement II is correct. As per Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, the Central Government has the authority to declare any mineral as a 'minor mineral' through official notification. This power allows the Central Government to define the scope of minor minerals, which then fall under the regulatory purview of State Governments. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, while Statement II is correct. The regulatory framework for minerals, especially the division of powers between the Centre and States, is a key topic for UPSC Polity & Governance and Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union (EU). This landmark legislation is the EU's first continent-wide law specifically designed for the long-term recovery of nature across its member states. It sets legally binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems, aiming to restore at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050. The law includes specific targets for various habitats, such as forests, grasslands, wetlands, and urban green spaces, and aims to reverse biodiversity loss and enhance climate resilience. The EU's environmental policies and legislative actions are important for UPSC, especially in the context of global efforts to combat climate change and biodiversity loss.

Answer: D

Explanation

Let's calculate each deficit based on the given figures:
I. Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
= Rs. 80,000 crores - Rs. 60,000 crores = Rs. 20,000 crores.
So, statement I is correct.

II. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts)
Alternatively, Fiscal Deficit is equal to the total borrowings and other liabilities of the government. Given that borrowings are Rs. 10,000 crores, the fiscal deficit is Rs. 10,000 crores.
So, statement II is correct.

III. Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
= Rs. 10,000 crores - Rs. 6,000 crores = Rs. 4,000 crores.
So, statement III is correct.

Since all three statements are correct, the correct option is D. Understanding government budget concepts and deficit calculations is fundamental for UPSC Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-km-long multi-modal network of ship, rail, and road routes for moving freight between India, Iran, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe. India, Russia, and Iran were the founding members, signing the Inter-Governmental Agreement in 2000. The primary objective of INSTC is to enhance trade and transport connectivity, offering a shorter and more cost-effective alternative to traditional routes. It connects India to Central Asia and Europe, with Iran serving as a crucial transit hub. While Azerbaijan is part of a western branch of INSTC, the most comprehensive description of its connectivity is India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. Understanding major international transport corridors and their geopolitical significance is important for UPSC Geography and International Relations.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The United States is consistently the world's largest producer of ethanol, significantly outproducing Brazil. For example, in 2024, the US produced approximately 16.1 billion gallons compared to Brazil's 8.8 billion gallons. Statement II is correct. In the United States, corn is indeed the primary feedstock for ethanol production, accounting for the vast majority of its output. In contrast, Brazil predominantly uses sugarcane as its principal feedstock for ethanol production, leveraging its extensive sugarcane cultivation. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. The global biofuel industry, including ethanol production and its feedstocks, is relevant for UPSC Environment & Ecology and Economy, especially in the context of energy security and climate change mitigation.

Answer: C

Explanation

A wet-bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the theoretical limit of human survivability, beyond which the body cannot cool itself through sweating. Statement I is an implication. The World Bank report and other climate studies indicate that increased global warming, leading to higher wet-bulb temperatures, will exacerbate extreme weather events. This includes increased rainfall intensity in monsoon seasons, leading to flooding, a higher frequency of tropical cyclones, and prolonged droughts in various regions, including Peninsular India. Statement II is also a direct implication. When wet-bulb temperatures exceed the body's ability to cool through perspiration, it leads to severe heat stress, heatstroke, and eventually organ failure. This directly threatens the survival of humans and other animals, particularly those without efficient thermoregulation mechanisms. Both statements reflect critical implications of routinely exceeding high wet-bulb temperatures. The impacts of climate change and extreme weather events are crucial topics for UPSC Environment & Ecology.

Answer: A

Explanation

The primary deficit is a key indicator of fiscal health, representing the government's borrowing requirement excluding interest payments on past debts. It is calculated as: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments. Given: Fiscal Deficit = Rs. 50,000 crores. Interest Liabilities (Interest Payments) = Rs. 1,500 crores. Therefore, Gross Primary Deficit = Rs. 50,000 crores - Rs. 1,500 crores = Rs. 48,500 crores. The non-debt creating capital receipts (Rs. 10,000 crores) are already accounted for in the calculation of the fiscal deficit and are not directly used in the primary deficit calculation from a given fiscal deficit figure. Understanding government budget concepts and deficit calculations is fundamental for UPSC Economy.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The 15th Finance Commission (XVFC) recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores (₹1,200 crore annually) for the period 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes. Statement II is incorrect. The XVFC recommended maintaining the vertical devolution share of states in the divisible pool of central taxes at 41%, not 45%. This 41% is 1% lower than the 14th FC's recommendation of 42%, adjusted for the creation of the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Statement III is correct. The XVFC recommended ₹45,000 crores as a performance-based incentive for all states to undertake agricultural reforms. Statement IV is correct. The XVFC reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion in its devolution formula to reward states that demonstrate better fiscal performance and efficiency in tax collection. Therefore, statements I, III, and IV are correct. The recommendations of Finance Commissions are crucial for understanding fiscal federalism in India and are a recurring topic for UPSC Economy.

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a global development cooperative that provides loans, guarantees, risk management products, and advisory services primarily to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. Statement II is incorrect. The IBRD is part of the World Bank Group, which comprises several institutions (like IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID). It works collaboratively with these institutions and various public and private sector entities to reduce poverty and build shared prosperity, not 'single-handedly'. Statement III is correct. The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the initial mandate to finance the reconstruction of war-torn European economies after World War II. Later, its focus shifted to development in developing countries. Therefore, statements I and III are correct. Understanding international financial institutions and their roles is important for UPSC Economy and International Relations.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions individually and continuously, leading to instantaneous settlement. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) operates on a deferred net settlement basis, processing transactions in batches at specific intervals, so it takes some time for payments to settle. Statement II is incorrect. For RTGS, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that inward transactions (receiving money) should be free of charge for customers. For outward transactions, banks may levy charges within prescribed limits. Similarly, for NEFT, inward transactions are also free. Statement III is incorrect. With effect from December 14, 2020, RTGS has been made available 24x7x365, similar to NEFT, which has also been available 24x7. Therefore, operating hours for RTGS are no longer restricted. Only statement I is correct. Understanding digital payment systems and their operational differences is important for UPSC Economy.

Answer: B

Explanation

UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is India's mobile-based fast payment system. Its international acceptance is expanding. From the given list: I. United Arab Emirates (UAE): Yes, UPI is accepted for international merchant payments in the UAE. II. France: Yes, UPI was launched for merchant payments in France, notably at the Eiffel Tower. IV. Singapore: Yes, UPI is accepted for international merchant payments in Singapore, with linkage to PayNow. Germany (III) and Bangladesh (V) are not currently listed among the countries where UPI is accepted for international merchant payments. Other countries where UPI is accepted include Bhutan, Mauritius, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. Therefore, three countries from the list (UAE, France, Singapore) accept international merchant payments under UPI. The internationalization of India's digital payment systems is a significant development for UPSC Economy and Current Affairs.

Answer: D

Explanation

All three statements about the 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' are correct. I. The scheme, approved in February 2024, explicitly targets the installation of one crore (10 million) solar rooftop panels in the residential sector across India by March 2027, aiming to provide free electricity to households. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is indeed responsible for implementing this scheme and aims to impart training at the grassroots level. This includes training for installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems to build a skilled local workforce. III. A key component of the scheme is capacity building, which aims to create over three lakh (300,000) skilled personnel through fresh skilling and up-skilling initiatives. This includes training Solar PV Technicians to support the widespread adoption of rooftop solar. Therefore, all statements are correct. Government schemes promoting renewable energy and skill development are highly relevant for UPSC, covering Environment & Ecology, Economy, and Polity & Governance.

Answer: C

Explanation

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. This is correct. An Ordinance, issued by the President under Article 123 or Governor under Article 213, has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament or State Legislature, respectively. It can therefore amend or repeal existing laws, including Central Acts, subject to constitutional limitations. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. This is incorrect. An Ordinance is considered 'law' under Article 13 of the Constitution. Therefore, it cannot violate or abridge any Fundamental Right, just as an Act of Parliament cannot. Any Ordinance that abridges a Fundamental Right would be unconstitutional. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. This is correct. The power to make laws includes the power to make them with retrospective effect (from a past date), provided it does not violate constitutional provisions (e.g., Article 20(1) regarding criminal laws). The Supreme Court has affirmed that the Ordinance-making power is co-extensive with legislative power, including the ability to be retrospective. Therefore, statements I and III are correct. The President's ordinance-making power is a crucial aspect of UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: B

Explanation

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital, Itanagar, is named after Ita Fort. Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park. This pair is correctly matched. II. Nagaland: The State of Nagaland was formed in 1963 by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, which was an Act of Parliament. Simultaneously, the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, was passed to insert Article 371A, granting special provisions to Nagaland. So, its existence is linked to both an Act of Parliament and a Constitutional Amendment Act. This pair is correctly matched. III. Tripura: Tripura acceded to India in 1949 and was initially a Part 'C' State. With the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, it became a Union Territory. It attained full statehood in 1972 through the North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. This pair is correctly matched. Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched. Understanding the historical and constitutional evolution of Indian states is important for UPSC Polity & Governance and History.

Answer: A

Explanation

I. The Inter-State Council: This body is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Article 263 empowers the President to establish such a council if it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment. Thus, it is a constitutional body. II. The National Security Council (NSC): The NSC was established in 1998 by an executive order of the Government of India. It is an executive body, not a constitutional or statutory one. III. Zonal Councils: These councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is an Act of Parliament. Therefore, they are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies. Hence, only the Inter-State Council is established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India. Distinguishing between constitutional, statutory, and executive bodies is a fundamental aspect of UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Article 163(1) of the Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, 'except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.' Article 163(2) further clarifies that the Governor's decision on whether a matter falls within his discretion is final. This explicitly acknowledges the Governor's discretionary powers in certain spheres. Statement II is incorrect. Under Article 200, a bill passed by a State Legislature is presented to the Governor. The Governor has the power to reserve certain types of bills for the consideration of the President. However, the President cannot 'of his/her own' reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature; it must first be reserved and forwarded by the Governor. Therefore, only statement I is correct. The role and powers of the Governor, especially discretionary powers, are a recurring and important topic for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: C

Explanation

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: This provision is indeed stated under Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). It mandates the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive. This pair is correctly matched. II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: This is a Fundamental Duty, specifically mentioned in Article 51A(f). It obliges every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. This pair is correctly matched. III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: This is a Fundamental Right, enshrined in Article 24, which prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations. This pair is correctly matched. Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched. Understanding the different parts of the Constitution and their specific provisions is fundamental for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not state that the State Government loses its executive power in Scheduled Areas. Instead, Paragraph 2 explicitly states that the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas within it. While local bodies (like Gram Sabhas under PESA) are empowered, they do not assume 'total administration' to the exclusion of the State Government. Statement II is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule (Paragraph 3) allows the Union Government to give directions to a State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. However, it does not provide for the Union Government to 'take over the total administration' of such areas based on the Governor's recommendations. A complete takeover would typically involve invoking Article 356 (President's Rule), which is a separate constitutional provision. Therefore, neither statement is correct. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules, dealing with tribal administration, are crucial for UPSC Polity & Governance, especially in the context of federalism and tribal rights.

Answer: D

Explanation

Let's examine each pair: I. The National Automotive Board (NAB): This board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its role is to promote and develop the automotive sector. So, this pair is incorrectly matched. II. The Coir Board: This is a statutory body established for the promotion and development of the coir industry. It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. So, this pair is incorrectly matched. III. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): This organization provides trade information and market intelligence. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). So, this pair is incorrectly matched. Therefore, none of the above pairs are correctly matched. Knowledge of government organizations and their parent ministries is important for UPSC Polity & Governance and Economy.

Answer: A

Explanation

Article 368 of the Constitution outlines the procedure for constitutional amendments. Certain provisions affecting the federal structure require ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures by a simple majority, in addition to a special majority in Parliament. I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule: Any amendment to the lists in the Seventh Schedule (Union, State, Concurrent) directly affects the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States, which is a fundamental aspect of federalism. Therefore, it requires State ratification. II. Extent of the executive power of a State: Amendments related to the executive power of the Union (Article 73) and the States (Article 162) require State ratification, as they impact the functional division between the Centre and States. III. Conditions of the Governor’s office: The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) are not explicitly listed among the provisions requiring State ratification under the proviso to Article 368(2). Amendments to these provisions can be made by a special majority in Parliament alone. Therefore, only I and II require State ratification. Understanding the constitutional amendment procedure and federal provisions is crucial for UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: D

Explanation

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. This is correct, as per Article 361(1) of the Constitution, which grants personal immunity to the President and Governors for official acts. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. This is correct, as per Article 361(2), which provides absolute immunity from criminal proceedings to the President and Governors while in office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. This is correct, as per Article 194(2), which grants freedom of speech in the Legislature and immunity from judicial proceedings for anything said or any vote given therein. Therefore, all three statements are correct. Understanding the immunities and privileges of constitutional functionaries and legislators is a key aspect of UPSC Polity & Governance.

Answer: B

Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the PNGRB Act, 2006. Its mandate is to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas. However, the Act explicitly excludes the 'production of crude oil and natural gas' from PNGRB's regulatory purview. Therefore: I. Production of crude oil: Not regulated by PNGRB. II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum: Regulated by PNGRB. III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products: Regulated by PNGRB. IV. Production of natural gas: Not regulated by PNGRB. Thus, only two activities (Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum, and Marketing and sale of petroleum products) from the list are regulated by PNGRB. Understanding the regulatory bodies in key economic sectors is important for UPSC Economy.

Answer: B

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi made the powerful statement, 'Sedition has become my religion,' during the Civil Disobedience Movement, specifically when he publicly violated the Salt Law at Dandi on April 6, 1930. This act of defiance, picking up a handful of salt, symbolized India's refusal to accept unjust British laws and rule. Gandhi's statement underscored his commitment to non-violent resistance against what he considered an immoral and oppressive government, equating his struggle for freedom with a religious duty. This moment marked a significant escalation in the Indian independence movement. Understanding key statements and their historical context is important for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: C

Explanation

The iconic 'Dancing Girl' figurine, discovered at the archaeological site of Mohenjo-daro (part of the Indus Valley Civilization), is made of bronze. This small, approximately 4-inch tall, sculpture is a remarkable example of the metallurgical skills of the Harappan people, demonstrating their mastery of the lost-wax casting technique (cire perdue). The figurine depicts a confident female figure, adorned with bangles, and is considered one of the most significant artifacts providing insights into the art, culture, and possibly the social life of the Indus Valley Civilization. Knowledge of major archaeological finds and their characteristics is fundamental for UPSC Ancient History and Art & Culture.

Answer: B

Explanation

In the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922, where a violent mob set fire to a police station, leading to the deaths of several policemen, many individuals were arrested and faced severe charges. Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and nationalist leader, played a crucial role in providing legal defense to the accused. Despite having largely retired from legal practice, he returned to defend the accused in the Gorakhpur Sessions Court. He successfully secured the acquittal of 153 out of 172 individuals who had initially been sentenced to death. Krishna Kant also assisted in the legal defense. This act highlighted the commitment of nationalist leaders to justice even in challenging circumstances. Understanding key events and the roles of prominent figures in the freedom struggle is important for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: A

Explanation

Following the Poona Pact of 1932, Mahatma Gandhi intensified his efforts for the upliftment of the Depressed Classes, whom he began to refer to as 'Harijans' (children of God). The Poona Pact was an agreement between Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar, which resolved the issue of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes by providing reserved seats within the general electorate. After this, Gandhi shifted his focus significantly towards social reform, launching the 'Harijan Sevak Sangh' and starting the weekly 'Harijan' newspaper. He undertook extensive tours to campaign against untouchability, making it a central part of his social and political agenda. This period marked a dedicated phase of his work for social equality. Understanding the evolution of Gandhi's social reform agenda is crucial for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: C

Explanation

The Portuguese played a significant role in the Columbian Exchange, introducing several 'New World' crops and fruits to India during the 16th and 17th centuries. I. Papaya: Originating from Central America, papaya was introduced to India by the Portuguese. II. Pineapple: Native to South America, pineapple was brought to India by the Portuguese, becoming a popular fruit. III. Guava: Also originating from Central and South America, guava was introduced to India by the Portuguese traders. These fruits, along with others like maize, chili, and potato, became integral to Indian agriculture and cuisine over time. Therefore, all three fruits listed were introduced to India by the Portuguese. Understanding the impact of European arrivals on Indian society, economy, and agriculture is important for UPSC Modern History.

Answer: C

Explanation

Let's examine the number of time zones for each country, including their overseas territories: I. United Kingdom: While mainland UK uses one time zone, its numerous overseas territories (e.g., Bermuda, Falkland Islands) mean it spans 9 time zones. (More than four) II. Denmark: Mainland Denmark uses one time zone, but including its autonomous territories like Greenland (3 time zones) and the Faroe Islands (1 time zone), it has more than four time zones. III. New Zealand: New Zealand itself has two main time zones (NZST and Chatham Standard Time) and one for Tokelau, totaling 3. (Not more than four) IV. Australia: Mainland Australia has 3 standard time zones, but including its external territories (e.g., Christmas Island, Cocos (Keeling) Islands), it spans 9 time zones. (More than four) V. Brazil: Brazil has 4 standard time zones. (Not more than four) Therefore, the United Kingdom, Denmark, and Australia have more than four time zones. Understanding time zones and their geographical distribution is a basic concept in UPSC Geography.

Answer: A

Explanation

I. Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are indeed separated by the Bering Strait, which is crossed by the International Date Line (IDL). Due to the IDL, these two locations, despite being geographically close, are on different calendar days. This means that when it's morning in one, it could be the morning of the previous day in the other, making it 'different days'. So, statement I is correct. II. The International Date Line runs roughly along the 180° longitude. When crossing the IDL from west to east (e.g., from Anadyr towards Nome), one 'loses' a day. Conversely, crossing from east to west 'gains' a day. Anadyr is west of the IDL, and Nome is east of it. Therefore, if it is Monday in Anadyr, it would be Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. So, statement II is incorrect. Understanding the International Date Line and its effect on time and date is a fundamental concept in UPSC Geography.

Answer: A

Explanation

The 'Self-Respect Movement' was founded by E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as 'Periyar', in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. This movement was a radical social reform initiative aimed at achieving a society where backward castes had equal human rights and encouraging them to live with self-respect. It challenged Brahminical dominance, caste hierarchy, and religious orthodoxy, advocating for social equality, rationalism, and women's rights. Periyar's movement played a pivotal role in shaping Dravidian politics and social justice discourse in South India. Understanding such socio-religious reform movements and their leaders is crucial for UPSC Modern History and Indian Society.

Answer: C

Explanation

I. Botswana: Botswana is indeed one of the world's leading producers of diamonds. Diamond mining is a cornerstone of its economy. This pair is correctly matched. II. Chile: Chile is a major global producer of lithium, particularly from its vast salt flats (salars) in the Atacama Desert. It is a key part of the 'Lithium Triangle' in South America. This pair is correctly matched. III. Indonesia: Indonesia holds the world's largest nickel reserves and is the largest producer of nickel globally. Nickel is crucial for electric vehicle batteries. This pair is correctly matched. Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched. Knowledge of global distribution of critical minerals and resource-rich countries is important for UPSC Geography and Economy, especially in the context of energy transition and supply chain security.

Answer: D

Explanation

Let's examine each pair: I. Mallorca: Mallorca is a large island in the Balearic Islands archipelago, which is an autonomous community of Spain. It is not part of Italy. So, this pair is incorrectly matched. II. Normandy: Normandy is a historical and administrative region located in northern France, bordering the English Channel. It is not part of Spain. So, this pair is incorrectly matched. III. Sardinia: Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea and an autonomous region of Italy. It is not part of France. So, this pair is incorrectly matched. Therefore, none of the above pairs are correctly matched. Knowledge of world political geography, including regions and their associated countries, is fundamental for UPSC Geography.