JPSC Question Paper Analysis 2024: PDF Download

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The Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC) exam is one of the most sought-after state-level competitive exams in India, primarily for its prestigious recruitment into administrative roles. The 2024 JPSC Combined Civil Services Exam saw a meticulous design of question papers, incorporating a diverse range of topics and focusing on assessing candidates’ conceptual clarity, analytical skills, and familiarity with Jharkhand’s unique socio-economic, historical, and geographical dimensions. Here is a detailed analysis of the question paper to help aspirants understand the framework and approach of the exam.

1. Which of the following pairs is Correctly matched? (JPSC 2024)

Nobel Prize Winner (2022) | Area of Prize
[A] Svante Pääbo – Physics
[B] Alain Aspect – Chemistry
[C] Morten Meldal – Economic Sciences
[D] Annie Ernaux – Literature

Answer : Option [D] Annie Ernaux – Literature is correctly matched

Short Explanation:

Svante Pääbo: Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine (not Physics).
Alain Aspect: Nobel Prize in Physics (not Chemistry).
Morten Meldal: Nobel Prize in Chemistry (not Economic Sciences).
Annie Ernaux: Correct. She won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2022..

Analysis of Question 1

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Awards and Achievements
Topic	Nobel Prize Winners 2022 and Their Fields
Purpose	Tests candidates’ precision in remembering key facts about global awards.
Framing Technique	Incorrect pairings with slight variations to confuse candidates.
Complexity	High – Requires exact knowledge of winners and fields.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: International Awards and Notable Personalities
Preparation Strategy	Memorize award categories, winners, and contributions from recent years.

2. In which of the following cities was the Global Buddhist Summit held on 20th April, 2023? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Delhi
[B] Kathmandu
[C] Kuala Lumpur
[D] Jakarta

Correct Answer: [A] Delhi

Short Explanation:
The Global Buddhist Summit 2023 was held in New Delhi, India, on April 20-21, 2023. It was a significant event to discuss Buddhism’s global role and its teachings in modern times.

Analysis of Question 2

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Events and Locations
Topic	Global Buddhist Summit 2023
Purpose	Tests awareness of recent international summits and their venues.
Framing Technique	Includes misleading cities (e.g., Kathmandu, Kuala Lumpur) to confuse candidates.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires exact knowledge of the summit’s location.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Summits, conferences, and global events hosted in India.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key events, their host cities, and associated dates.

3. Which of the following countries has awarded the highest civilian award ‘The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star’ to the President of India during her visit in 2023?

[A] Egypt
[B] Malaysia
[C] Indonesia
[D] Suriname

Correct Answer: [D] Suriname

Short Explanation:
During her visit to Suriname in 2023, President Droupadi Murmu was conferred the country’s highest civilian award, The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star.

Analysis of Question 3

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Awards and International Relations
Topic	India’s diplomatic visits and foreign awards
Purpose	Tests awareness of India’s foreign relations and achievements abroad.
Framing Technique	Distractors include relevant countries like Egypt and Indonesia.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of recent diplomatic events.
Key Focus Area	International Relations: State visits, awards conferred on Indian leaders.
Preparation Strategy	Track significant state visits and outcomes, focusing on awards/treaties.

4. **Who is the author of the book The Coalition Years? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Shashi Tharoor
[B] Pranab Mukherjee
[C] Ravi Mathur
[D] M. M. Singh

Correct Answer: [B] Pranab Mukherjee

Short Explanation:
The book The Coalition Years was authored by Pranab Mukherjee, former President of India, focusing on his experiences during coalition governments.

Analysis of Question 4

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Static GK – Books and Authors
Topic	Notable Books by Indian Politicians
Purpose	Tests candidates’ knowledge of books authored by prominent figures.
Framing Technique	Distractors include famous politicians (e.g., Shashi Tharoor, M. M. Singh).
Complexity	Low – Requires basic awareness of notable political writings.
Key Focus Area	Static GK: Books, authors, and political literature.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important books authored by Indian leaders and their themes.

5. With reference to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), which of the following statements is/are correct? (JPSC 2024)

I. It has 42 member nations.
II. Its Headquarters is located at Brussels.

[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I and II
[D] Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: [B] Only II

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. NATO currently has 31 member nations.
Statement II: Correct. NATO’s headquarters is located in Brussels, Belgium.

Analysis of Question 5

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	NATO – Membership and Headquarters
Purpose	Tests knowledge of international organizations and their facts.
Framing Technique	Includes a false numerical fact and a correct location-based statement.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires precise knowledge of membership numbers and HQ.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: International organizations (NATO, UN, WHO, etc.).
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key facts about international organizations (members, HQs, roles).

6. With reference to G20 (Group of 20), which of the following statements is/are correct? (JPSC 2024)

I. India took over the G20 presidency from Australia on 1st December, 2022.
II. The first G20 Summit was held in Washington in 2008.

[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I and II
[D] Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: [B] Only II

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. India took over the G20 presidency from Indonesia, not Australia.
Statement II: Correct. The first G20 Summit was held in Washington, D.C., in 2008.

Analysis of Question 6

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	G20 Presidency and Historical Facts
Purpose	Tests understanding of India’s G20 role and historical facts.
Framing Technique	Includes one false statement with a factual error to test knowledge.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of both recent and historical facts.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: G20 summits, presidencies, and key historical facts.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize G20 presidency details, summit locations, and historical origins.

7. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India talks about the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?(JPSC 2024)

[A] Article 43
[B] Article 44
[C] Article 45
[D] Article 46

Correct Answer: [B] Article 44

Short Explanation:
Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) to promote uniformity in personal laws across all communities in India.

Analysis of Question 7

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Static GK – Indian Polity
Topic	Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of specific Articles of the Constitution.
Framing Technique	Close options from DPSP (e.g., Articles 43, 45, 46) to confuse candidates.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of DPSP and the UCC.
Key Focus Area	Polity: DPSP Articles and Constitutional Provisions
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key Articles and their purpose under the Indian Constitution.

8. In 2023, which US State recently declared holiday in public schools on the festival of Diwali? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Los Angeles
[B] Boston
[C] Jersey
[D] New York

Correct Answer: [D] New York

Short Explanation:
In 2023, the State of New York officially declared a public school holiday on the festival of Diwali to recognize its cultural significance and the growing South Asian community.

Analysis of Question 8

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – International Developments
Topic	US State declaration of Diwali as a public holiday
Purpose	Tests awareness of significant cultural recognitions in foreign countries.
Framing Technique	Distractor options include major cities like Los Angeles and Boston.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires specific knowledge of recent international events.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: International events related to Indian culture abroad.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on significant global recognitions of Indian festivals and events.

9. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Name of Padma Shri Recipients | Area of Award
[A] Shri Anand Kumar — Science and Engineering
[B] Shri Mohanlal Lodha — Literature and Education
[C] Shri Janum Singh Soy — Public Affairs
[D] Shri P. Kalyanasundaram — Social Work

Correct Answer: [D] Shri P. Kalyanasundaram — Social Work

Short Explanation:

Shri P. Kalyanasundaram is a Padma Shri awardee known for his contributions in Social Work.
Other pairings do not align with the correct area of awards.

Analysis of Question 9

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Padma Awards and Recipients
Topic	Padma Awards (2023 Recipients and Areas)
Purpose	Tests awareness of recent Padma Shri awardees and their contributions.
Framing Technique	Misleading pairings to test precision and knowledge of recipients.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires exact knowledge of awardees and their work.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Awards, notable personalities, and recognitions.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize recent Padma awardees and their areas of contribution.

10. In which of the following States has the world’s largest railway platform been inaugurated? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Karnataka
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Delhi

Correct Answer: [A] Karnataka

Short Explanation:
The world’s largest railway platform was inaugurated at Shree Siddharoodha Swamiji Station in Hubballi, Karnataka.

Analysis of Question 10

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Infrastructure
Topic	World’s Largest Railway Platform – Location
Purpose	Tests knowledge of recent achievements in infrastructure in India.
Framing Technique	Distractors include states with prominent infrastructure projects.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of record-breaking developments.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Infrastructure and development projects in India.
Preparation Strategy	Track major infrastructure achievements and their locations.

11. Who was the Chief Guest for the Republic Day in 2023?

[A] President of Afghanistan
[B] President of Egypt
[C] President of UAE
[D] President of Indonesia

Correct Answer: [B] President of Egypt

Short Explanation:
The President of Egypt, Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, was the Chief Guest at India’s Republic Day celebrations in 2023.

Analysis of Question 11

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Republic Day Chief Guests
Topic	Chief Guest for Republic Day Celebrations 2023
Purpose	Tests awareness of India’s diplomatic relations and state guests.
Framing Technique	Distractors include leaders of other prominent countries.
Complexity	Low – Requires updated knowledge of national events.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Foreign dignitaries visiting India.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize Chief Guests for key national events like Republic Day.

12. The Indian Government has launched a rescue operation in Sudan to evacuate its stranded citizens. This operation is known as:

[A] Operation Dost
[B] Operation Ganga
[C] Operation Addis Ababa
[D] Operation Kaveri

Correct Answer: [D] Operation Kaveri

Short Explanation:
The Indian Government launched Operation Kaveri in 2023 to evacuate Indian citizens stranded in Sudan due to the ongoing conflict.

Analysis of Question 12

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Government Operations
Topic	Operation Kaveri – Sudan Evacuation
Purpose	Tests knowledge of rescue operations and crisis response by India.
Framing Technique	Includes misleading names (e.g., Operation Ganga, Operation Dost) referencing past evacuations.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with India’s recent operations.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Government rescue and evacuation missions.
Preparation Strategy	Track major rescue operations and crisis management initiatives by India.

13. Which architect has designed the new building of the Indian Parliament? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Ravi Modi
[B] Bimal Roy
[C] Bimal Patel
[D] D. Radhakrishnan

Correct Answer: [C] Bimal Patel

Short Explanation:
The new Parliament building of India was designed by Bimal Patel, a renowned architect known for several landmark projects.

Analysis of Question 13

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Current Affairs – Architecture and Infrastructure
Topic	Architect of the New Indian Parliament
Purpose	Tests knowledge of significant contributions to India’s infrastructure.
Framing Technique	Distractors include unrelated names to mislead candidates.
Complexity	Low – Requires familiarity with high-profile national projects.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Indian architecture and development projects.
Preparation Strategy	Note major projects, their designers, and key contributors in India.

14. Which of the following statements is/are true about Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)?

I. India is a member of CDRI.
II. It is a UN agency.
III. Its headquarters is located in Paris.
IV. It was launched during G20 Summit, 2023.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] Only I
[B] Only II and III
[C] Only I, III and IV
[D] I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: [A] Only I

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. India is a founding member of CDRI.
Statement II: Incorrect. CDRI is not a UN agency; it is a global partnership initiative.
Statement III: Incorrect. Its headquarters is located in New Delhi, not Paris.
Statement IV: Incorrect. CDRI was launched by India in 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit, not during the G20 Summit 2023.

Analysis of Question 14

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
Purpose	Tests understanding of key global initiatives and India’s role.
Framing Technique	Combines correct and incorrect facts to test analytical clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires clarity about headquarters, origin, and status.
Key Focus Area	International initiatives launched by India and their details.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize facts about key international organizations and initiatives.

15. Agricultural drought is defined as:

[A] Uneven distribution of rainfall over time and place
[B] Low soil moisture
[C] Inadequate rainfall of 30 percent or more in cropped areas
[D] The lack of water supply in water storage reservoirs which can be compensated by normal rainfall

Correct Answer: [C] Inadequate rainfall of 30 percent or more in cropped areas

Short Explanation:
Agricultural drought occurs when there is inadequate rainfall leading to a significant shortfall of water, usually defined as 30% or more in cropped areas, impacting agriculture.

Analysis of Question 15

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Definition-Based (Conceptual Understanding)
Topic	Agricultural Drought – Definition and Impact
Purpose	Tests understanding of drought types, specifically agricultural drought.
Framing Technique	Includes distractors related to soil moisture and water distribution.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires conceptual clarity of different drought definitions.
Key Focus Area	Geography and Environment: Droughts and their classifications.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on definitions of drought (agricultural, meteorological, hydrological).

16. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services is located in which of the following cities? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Mumbai
[B] Delhi
[C] Kolkata
[D] Hyderabad

Correct Answer: [D] Hyderabad

Short Explanation:
The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is located in Hyderabad, Telangana. It provides ocean-related information and services to various stakeholders.

Analysis of Question 16

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Static GK – Location-Based
Topic	Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key institutions and their headquarters.
Framing Technique	Distractors include prominent coastal and metropolitan cities (e.g., Mumbai, Kolkata).
Complexity	Low – Requires factual recall of organizational headquarters.
Key Focus Area	Static GK: Locations of Indian government organizations and research centers.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize headquarters of major research and government institutes in India.

17. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Yaya Tso Lake? (JPSC 2024)

I. It is located in Ladakh.
II. It is Ladakh’s first heritage site under the Biological Diversity Act.
III. It is also known as bird’s paradise.
IV. It is fed by Sutlej river.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I and II only
[B] I, II and IV only
[C] I, II and III only
[D] I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: [C] I, II and III only

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. Yaya Tso Lake is located in Ladakh.
Statement II: Correct. It is Ladakh’s first biodiversity heritage site under the Biological Diversity Act.
Statement III: Correct. Yaya Tso Lake is also known as a bird’s paradise due to its rich birdlife.
Statement IV: Incorrect. The lake is not fed by the Sutlej river; it is primarily a glacial lake.

Analysis of Question 17

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Yaya Tso Lake – Location and Features
Purpose	Tests knowledge of geographical features and biodiversity hotspots.
Framing Technique	Includes both correct and incorrect statements to test factual clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires detailed knowledge of specific lakes and their features.
Key Focus Area	Geography and Environment: Lakes, biodiversity, and geographical facts.
Preparation Strategy	Study geographical landmarks, biodiversity sites, and ecological features.

18. The Lakdawala Committee (1993) is related to: (JPSC 2024)

[A] Income inequality
[B] Poverty estimation
[C] Inter-State relation
[D] Biodiversity conservation

Correct Answer: [B] Poverty estimation

Short Explanation:
The Lakdawala Committee (1993) was established to define poverty estimation in India. It recommended measuring poverty based on the caloric intake and consumption expenditure.

Analysis of Question 18

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Static GK – Committees and Reports
Topic	Lakdawala Committee and its purpose
Purpose	Tests knowledge of important committees and their roles.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other governance issues (e.g., income inequality).
Complexity	Low – Requires direct knowledge of committees and their objectives.
Key Focus Area	Polity and Economy: Committees, commissions, and poverty measurement.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key committees, their year of formation, and their functions.

19. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by UN General Assembly, does not include which of the following? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Dignity, Liberty and Equality
[B] Right to Life
[C] Freedom of Adequate Standard of Living
[D] Right to Universal Basic Income

Correct Answer: [D] Right to Universal Basic Income

Short Explanation:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) includes provisions for dignity, liberty, equality, right to life, and standard of living, but does not mention the Right to Universal Basic Income.

Analysis of Question 19

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – International Human Rights
Topic	Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
Purpose	Tests understanding of key international human rights provisions.
Framing Technique	Distractors include true provisions of the UDHR.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires clarity of what is included and excluded in UDHR.
Key Focus Area	International Relations: UN declarations and treaties.
Preparation Strategy	Study key provisions of UN charters, declarations, and international rights.

20. Which of the following is not considered a subsidy box for agriculture in WTO? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Green box subsidy
[B] Amber box subsidy
[C] Red box subsidy
[D] White box subsidy

Correct Answer: [D] White box subsidy

Short Explanation:
The WTO classifies agricultural subsidies into:

Green Box: Permissible subsidies that do not distort trade (e.g., research, environmental protection).
Amber Box: Subsidies that distort trade and production (subject to limits).
Red Box: Prohibited subsidies.
There is no “White Box” subsidy under the WTO framework.

Analysis of Question 20

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – WTO Subsidy Classifications
Topic	WTO – Agricultural Subsidy Boxes
Purpose	Tests knowledge of WTO classifications of subsidies.
Framing Technique	Includes a non-existent category (White Box) to test conceptual clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with WTO terminologies and classifications.
Key Focus Area	International Organizations: WTO rules and frameworks on agriculture.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize WTO classifications for subsidies (Green, Amber, and Red Box).

21. Which of the following statements is/are true for alluvial soil? (JPSC 2024)

I. Its sand content decreases from west to east.
II. They are in the form of Bhangar and Khadar.
III. This soil covers about 40 percent of the total area of the country.
IV. This soil is rich in potash and poor in phosphorus.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I only
[B] I and III only
[C] I, II and III only
[D] I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: [D] I, II, III and IV

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. The sand content in alluvial soil decreases from west to east (e.g., Indo-Gangetic plain).
Statement II: Correct. Alluvial soil exists in two forms: Bhangar (old alluvium) and Khadar (new alluvium).
Statement III: Correct. Alluvial soil covers about 40% of India’s total land area.
Statement IV: Correct. Alluvial soil is rich in potash but poor in phosphorus.

Analysis of Question 21

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Alluvial Soil – Properties and Distribution
Purpose	Tests knowledge of soil types and their key characteristics.
Framing Technique	Combines multiple accurate facts to check conceptual clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires thorough knowledge of soil properties and geography.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Indian soils, their properties, and distribution.
Preparation Strategy	Study soil types, their properties, and regional variations in India.

22. PM KUSUM Scheme is related to:

[A] Agricultural solar pump system
[B] Electrical vehicle subsidy
[C] Semi-conductor sector
[D] Fertilizer sector

Correct Answer: [A] Agricultural solar pump system

Short Explanation:
The PM-KUSUM scheme (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) aims to promote the use of solar energy for irrigation by providing farmers with solar pumps and grid-connected solar energy systems.

Analysis of Question 22

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Scheme-Based (Static + Current Affairs)
Topic	PM-KUSUM Scheme – Purpose and Application
Purpose	Tests knowledge of government schemes related to agriculture and energy.
Framing Technique	Includes unrelated sectors (e.g., EV subsidy, semiconductor) as distractors.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires awareness of government schemes.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Government policies, schemes, and renewable energy.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize major government schemes, their objectives, and beneficiaries.

23. Labour force participation rate is defined as:

[A] Ratio of unemployed population to work force
[B] Ratio of employed and willing to work to working age population
[C] Ratio of employed to unemployed population
[D] Ratio of work force to working age population excluding disguised unemployment

Correct Answer: [D] Ratio of work force to working age population excluding disguised unemployment

Short Explanation:
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is the ratio of the workforce (employed + unemployed actively seeking work) to the working-age population, excluding disguised unemployment.

Analysis of Question 23

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Definition-Based (Conceptual Understanding)
Topic	Labour Force Participation Rate
Purpose	Tests clarity of economic definitions related to employment.
Framing Technique	Distractors include similar but incorrect definitions.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires precise understanding of LFPR.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Labour force, employment, and unemployment indicators.
Preparation Strategy	Study economic indicators and their definitions as used in reports.

24. World Social Security Report is released by which of the following? (JPSC 2024)

[A] World Bank
[B] UN Women Commission
[C] ILO
[D] UN Human Rights Commission

Correct Answer: [C] ILO

Short Explanation:
The World Social Security Report is published by the International Labour Organization (ILO), focusing on global social security coverage and challenges.

Analysis of Question 24

Parameter	Details
Question Type	International Organizations – Reports
Topic	World Social Security Report
Purpose	Tests knowledge of important reports and their publishing agencies.
Framing Technique	Includes other UN agencies and organizations as distractors.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct factual knowledge of reports and publishers.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Reports, indices, and international organizations.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key reports and indices along with their releasing organizations.

25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kharai camels? (JPSC 2024)

I. It is a rare camel breed found in Ladakh.
II. Their name is derived from the local word ‘Khara’ meaning saline.
III. They swim long distances in sea to reach their grazing areas.
IV. They were anciently used in the Silk Route areas.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I and II only
[B] I and III only
[C] II and III only
[D] I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: [C] II and III only

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. Kharai camels are a rare breed found in Gujarat, not Ladakh.
Statement II: Correct. The name ‘Kharai’ comes from ‘Khara’ meaning saline, referring to their grazing areas.
Statement III: Correct. Kharai camels are unique as they swim long distances in seawater to reach mangrove grazing areas.
Statement IV: Incorrect. They were not specifically used in the Silk Route trade.

Analysis of Question 25

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Kharai Camels – Distribution and Features
Purpose	Tests knowledge of rare species and their unique features.
Framing Technique	Mixes correct and incorrect statements to test clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires specific awareness about unique species.
Key Focus Area	Environment: Animal biodiversity and adaptation.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on unique animal species and their characteristics.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Gini Coefficient? (JPSC 2024)

I. It measures the level of income inequality in the society.
II. Higher the Gini coefficient, lower the inequality.
III. It can be derived using the Lorenz curve.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I only
[B] I and III only
[C] II and III only
[D] I, II and III

Correct Answer: [B] I and III only

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. The Gini Coefficient measures income inequality in a society.
Statement II: Incorrect. A higher Gini Coefficient indicates higher inequality, not lower.
Statement III: Correct. The Gini Coefficient is derived using the Lorenz curve.

Analysis of Question 26

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Economic Indicators
Topic	Gini Coefficient and Income Inequality
Purpose	Tests knowledge of economic indicators and their interpretations.
Framing Technique	Combines correct and reverse logic statements to check conceptual clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of the Gini index and Lorenz curve.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Income distribution, inequality, and economic indices.
Preparation Strategy	Study economic indicators and their correct definitions.

27. Where is Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve located? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Assam
[C] Manipur
[D] Sikkim

Correct Answer: [B] Assam

Short Explanation:
The Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve is located in Assam, known for its rich biodiversity, including rare species like the white-winged wood duck.

Analysis of Question 27

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Location-Based (Static GK)
Topic	Biosphere Reserves in India
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key biodiversity reserves and their locations.
Framing Technique	Distractors include states with significant biodiversity.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct factual recall.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Biosphere reserves and protected areas in India.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize locations and features of all major biosphere reserves.

28. Earth Overshoot Day is related to:

[A] Environmental degradation
[B] Overheating of troposphere
[C] Melting of glaciers due to intense sun rays
[D] Geomagnetism

Correct Answer: [A] Environmental degradation

Short Explanation:
Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when humanity’s demand for ecological resources exceeds what the Earth can regenerate in that year, leading to environmental degradation.

Analysis of Question 28

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Environment
Topic	Earth Overshoot Day – Meaning and Significance
Purpose	Tests understanding of global environmental challenges.
Framing Technique	Distractors include unrelated environmental phenomena.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of ecological terms.
Key Focus Area	Environment: Sustainable development, resource use, and global concerns.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on major environmental events, terms, and their significance.

25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kharai camels? (JPSC 2024)

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I and II only
[B] I and III only
[C] II and III only
[D] I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: [C] II and III only

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. Kharai camels are a rare breed found in Gujarat, not Ladakh.
Statement II: Correct. The name ‘Kharai’ comes from ‘Khara’ meaning saline, referring to their grazing areas.
Statement III: Correct. Kharai camels are unique as they swim long distances in seawater to reach mangrove grazing areas.
Statement IV: Incorrect. They were not specifically used in the Silk Route trade.

Analysis of Question 25

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Kharai Camels – Distribution and Features
Purpose	Tests knowledge of rare species and their unique features.
Framing Technique	Mixes correct and incorrect statements to test clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires specific awareness about unique species.
Key Focus Area	Environment: Animal biodiversity and adaptation.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on unique animal species and their characteristics.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Gini Coefficient? (JPSC 2024)

I. It measures the level of income inequality in the society.
II. Higher the Gini coefficient, lower the inequality.
III. It can be derived using the Lorenz curve.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I only
[B] I and III only
[C] II and III only
[D] I, II and III

Correct Answer: [B] I and III only

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. The Gini Coefficient measures income inequality in a society.
Statement II: Incorrect. A higher Gini Coefficient indicates higher inequality, not lower.
Statement III: Correct. The Gini Coefficient is derived using the Lorenz curve.

Analysis of Question 26

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Economic Indicators
Topic	Gini Coefficient and Income Inequality
Purpose	Tests knowledge of economic indicators and their interpretations.
Framing Technique	Combines correct and reverse logic statements to check conceptual clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of the Gini index and Lorenz curve.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Income distribution, inequality, and economic indices.
Preparation Strategy	Study economic indicators and their correct definitions.

27. Where is Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve located? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Assam
[C] Manipur
[D] Sikkim

Correct Answer: [B] Assam

Short Explanation:
The Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve is located in Assam, known for its rich biodiversity, including rare species like the white-winged wood duck.

Analysis of Question 27

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Location-Based (Static GK)
Topic	Biosphere Reserves in India
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key biodiversity reserves and their locations.
Framing Technique	Distractors include states with significant biodiversity.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct factual recall.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Biosphere reserves and protected areas in India.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize locations and features of all major biosphere reserves.

28. Earth Overshoot Day is related to:

[A] Environmental degradation
[B] Overheating of troposphere
[C] Melting of glaciers due to intense sun rays
[D] Geomagnetism

Correct Answer: [A] Environmental degradation

Analysis of Question 28

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Environment
Topic	Earth Overshoot Day – Meaning and Significance
Purpose	Tests understanding of global environmental challenges.
Framing Technique	Distractors include unrelated environmental phenomena.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of ecological terms.
Key Focus Area	Environment: Sustainable development, resource use, and global concerns.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on major environmental events, terms, and their significance.

29. At which of the following Indus Valley sites was a terracotta replica relating to exploration of a plough discovered? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Dholavira
[B] Kalibangan
[C] Rakhigarhi
[D] Banawali

Correct Answer: [B] Kalibangan

Short Explanation:
The terracotta plough was discovered at Kalibangan, an important Indus Valley site in Rajasthan, indicating early agricultural practices.

Analysis of Question 29

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Indus Valley Civilization
Topic	Discovery of artifacts at Indus Valley sites
Purpose	Tests knowledge of significant archaeological findings in IVC.
Framing Technique	Distractors are major IVC sites (e.g., Dholavira, Rakhigarhi, Banawali).
Complexity	Moderate – Requires specific knowledge of discoveries at IVC sites.
Key Focus Area	Ancient History: Indus Valley Civilization sites and discoveries.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important archaeological sites and key findings.

30. In which district of Jharkhand is the Neolithic archaeological site Barudih located? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Hazaribagh
[B] Simdega
[C] Jamtara
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [D] None of the above

Short Explanation:
The Neolithic site of Barudih is located in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, not in Hazaribagh, Simdega, or Jamtara.

Analysis of Question 30

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Location-Based (Static GK – Archaeology)
Topic	Neolithic Sites in Jharkhand
Purpose	Tests awareness of archaeological sites in Jharkhand.
Framing Technique	Includes nearby districts to create confusion.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires specific knowledge of Neolithic locations.
Key Focus Area	History and Archaeology: Prehistoric sites in India.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on state-specific archaeological and prehistoric sites.

31. Which one of the following administrative structures in ascending order is correct? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Dronamukha, Sthanīya, Samgrahana, Kharvatika
[B] Sthanīya, Kharvatika, Dronamukha, Samgrahana
[C] Sthanīya, Dronamukha, Kharvatika, Samgrahana
[D] Sthanīya, Dronamukha, Samgrahana, Kharvatika

Correct Answer: [A] Dronamukha, Sthanīya, Samgrahana, Kharvatika

Short Explanation:
The correct ascending administrative order in ancient India was:

Dronamukha (smallest unit),
Sthanīya,
Samgrahana,
Kharvatika (largest unit).

Analysis of Question 31

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Administrative Structures (Static GK – Ancient History)
Topic	Administrative hierarchy in ancient India
Purpose	Tests knowledge of local administrative units and their order.
Framing Technique	Rearranges the correct administrative order to test clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires detailed understanding of ancient administrative systems.
Key Focus Area	Ancient History: Administrative structures during early periods.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize administrative units and hierarchies of ancient India.

32. Prabhavati Gupta was the ruler of:

[A] Gupta Dynasty
[B] Sungas Dynasty
[C] Vakataka Dynasty
[D] Mauryan Dynasty

Correct Answer: [C] Vakataka Dynasty

Short Explanation:
Prabhavati Gupta, daughter of Chandragupta II (Gupta Dynasty), ruled as a queen-regent in the Vakataka Dynasty after marrying Vakataka ruler Rudrasena II.

Analysis of Question 32

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Rulers and Dynasties
Topic	Prabhavati Gupta and the Vakataka Dynasty
Purpose	Tests knowledge of rulers, their dynasties, and inter-dynastic relations.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other prominent dynasties (Gupta, Sungas, Mauryas).
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of dynastic marriages and alliances.
Key Focus Area	Ancient History: Role of women rulers and inter-dynastic connections.
Preparation Strategy	Study rulers, their relations, and contributions under specific dynasties.

33. **The Sangam text Tolkappiyam is a work on:**

[A] Astronomy
[B] Grammar
[C] Music
[D] Medicine

Correct Answer: [B] Grammar

Short Explanation:
The Tolkappiyam is one of the earliest works in Tamil Sangam literature. It is primarily a treatise on grammar and linguistics, providing insights into Tamil language, phonetics, and poetics.

Analysis of Question 33

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Ancient Literature
Topic	Sangam Literature (Tolkappiyam)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of Tamil literary works and their subject matter.
Framing Technique	Distractors include related subjects like astronomy, music, and medicine.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct factual knowledge.
Key Focus Area	Ancient History: Sangam Age literature and Tamil texts.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key Sangam texts and their themes.

34. Who was responsible for the smooth functioning of the Mughal Mansabdari system? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Vakil
[B] Wazir
[C] Mir Bakshi
[D] Sadr

Correct Answer: [C] Mir Bakshi

Short Explanation:
The Mir Bakshi was responsible for overseeing the Mansabdari system, including military appointments, salaries, and ranks under the Mughal administration.

Analysis of Question 34

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Administrative System – Mughal Period
Topic	Mughal Mansabdari System
Purpose	Tests understanding of the roles and officials in the Mughal administration.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other officials like Vakil (advisor), Wazir (finance), and Sadr (religious affairs).
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with Mughal administrative roles.
Key Focus Area	Medieval History: Mughal governance structure and officials.
Preparation Strategy	Study the Mughal administrative hierarchy and functions of officials.

35. During the Mughal period, the coins minted during the previous reign were called:

[A] Khajana
[B] Chalni
[C] Mohur
[D] Bikha

Correct Answer: [D] Bikha

Short Explanation:
During the Mughal period, coins minted during the reign of a previous ruler were referred to as Bikha coins.

Analysis of Question 35

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Numismatics
Topic	Mughal Coins and Terminologies
Purpose	Tests knowledge of coinage terms and practices in the Mughal period.
Framing Technique	Distractors include terms related to treasury (Khajana), trade coins (Chalni), and standard gold coins (Mohur).
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with Mughal numismatics.
Key Focus Area	Medieval History: Mughal coinage and economic systems.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key terms associated with coins in Mughal and other periods.

36. The capital of Vijayanagar Empire was situated on the bank of which river? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Tungabhadra
[B] Narmada
[C] Godavari
[D] Bhima

Correct Answer: [A] Tungabhadra

Short Explanation:
The capital of the Vijayanagar Empire, Hampi, was located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in present-day Karnataka.

Analysis of Question 36

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Geography-Based (Static GK – History)
Topic	Vijayanagar Empire and its capital
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the geographical location of major historical capitals.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other prominent rivers (e.g., Narmada, Godavari, Bhima).
Complexity	Low – Requires basic historical geography knowledge.
Key Focus Area	Medieval History: Vijayanagar Empire and its capital city.
Preparation Strategy	Focus on key dynasties, their capitals, and associated rivers.

37. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (JPSC 2024)

Building	Builder
[A] Lal Mahal	Balban
[B] Hindola Mahal	Hoshang Shah
[C] Jahaz Mahal	Ghiyasuddin Khilji
[D] Lal Darwaza	Bibi Raje Mosque

Correct Answer: [A] Lal Mahal — Balban

Short Explanation:

Lal Mahal is not associated with Balban; it is linked to the Yadava dynasty in Deccan history.
The other matches are correct:
- Hindola Mahal: Built by Hoshang Shah in Mandu.
- Jahaz Mahal: Built by Ghiyasuddin Khilji in Mandu.
- Lal Darwaza: Built near Bibi Raje Mosque in Jaunpur.

Analysis of Question 37

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Architecture and Builders
Topic	Medieval Indian Architecture
Purpose	Tests knowledge of historical buildings and their builders.
Framing Technique	Includes one incorrect pair to test attention to detail.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires precise recall of historical architecture.
Key Focus Area	Medieval History: Monuments, their builders, and locations.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key monuments, dynasties, and architects from medieval India.

38. **Who among the following is not a painter of Jahangir’s period? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Mansur
[B] Manohar
[C] Khwaja Abdus Samad
[D] Abul Hasan

Correct Answer: [C] Khwaja Abdus Samad

Short Explanation:

Khwaja Abdus Samad was a painter in the court of Humayun and Akbar, not Jahangir.
The other painters—Mansur, Manohar, and Abul Hasan—were renowned artists during Jahangir’s reign, known for their contributions to Mughal miniature painting.

Analysis of Question 38

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Mughal Court Painters
Topic	Painters of Jahangir’s court
Purpose	Tests awareness of Mughal art and key artists under Jahangir.
Framing Technique	Includes painters from earlier Mughal reigns as distractors.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of specific Mughal court artists.
Key Focus Area	Medieval History: Mughal patronage of art and culture.
Preparation Strategy	Study painters, architects, and cultural contributions under Mughal rulers.

39. Which Congress Session passed the resolution of Fundamental Rights in 1931? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Allahabad
[B] Karachi
[C] Mumbai
[D] Gaya

Correct Answer: [B] Karachi

Short Explanation:
The Karachi Session of 1931 passed the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policies, which became significant for future constitutional developments.

Analysis of Question 39

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Static GK – Indian National Movement
Topic	Congress Resolutions and Sessions
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key Congress sessions and their outcomes.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other prominent Congress sessions (e.g., Allahabad).
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of the Indian freedom struggle timeline.
Key Focus Area	Modern History: Important Congress sessions and resolutions.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize major Congress sessions, their resolutions, and historical impact.

40. Who among the following said “The Ryotwari is a system which has always prevailed in India”? (JPSC 2024)

[A] John Shore
[B] Alexander Duff
[C] Captain Reed
[D] Thomas Munro

Correct Answer: [D] Thomas Munro

Short Explanation:
The Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro in Madras Presidency during British rule. He claimed it was a system that “has always prevailed in India,” emphasizing individual land revenue settlements.

Analysis of Question 40

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Land Revenue Systems
Topic	Ryotwari System and its proponent
Purpose	Tests knowledge of colonial land revenue systems and their origin.
Framing Technique	Includes names of colonial administrators to create confusion.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of British land revenue systems.
Key Focus Area	Modern History: British land revenue policies (Ryotwari, Mahalwari, Zamindari).
Preparation Strategy	Study land revenue systems, their regions, and their proponents.

41. **With which of the following newspapers was Gandhiji not associated? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Young India
[B] Indian Mirror
[C] Harijan
[D] Indian Opinion

Correct Answer: [B] Indian Mirror

Short Explanation:

Gandhiji was associated with newspapers like Young India, Harijan, and Indian Opinion to promote his ideologies and campaigns.
Indian Mirror was founded by Keshub Chandra Sen and had no direct association with Gandhiji.

Analysis of Question 41

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Modern History
Topic	Newspapers associated with Mahatma Gandhi
Purpose	Tests knowledge of Gandhiji’s publications and media involvement.
Framing Technique	Includes newspapers from similar historical contexts as distractors.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires specific knowledge of Gandhiji’s role in journalism.
Key Focus Area	Modern History: Role of media during India’s freedom struggle.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize newspapers founded/edited by key leaders of the freedom movement.

42. The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and:

[A] Lord Cornwallis
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Hastings
[D] Lord Minto

Correct Answer: [C] Lord Hastings

Short Explanation:
The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the British East India Company, represented by Lord Hastings. It recognized Ranjit Singh’s control over Punjab while limiting his expansion eastward.

Analysis of Question 42

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Treaties and Agreements
Topic	Treaty of Amritsar and Ranjit Singh
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key treaties in colonial India.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other British officials from different periods.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct recall of historical treaties.
Key Focus Area	Modern History: Anglo-Sikh relations and British diplomacy.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important treaties, their signatories, and historical outcomes.

43. **Which of the following books has not been written by Dr. Ambedkar? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Thoughts on Pakistan
[B] Annihilation of Caste
[C] The Problem of Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution
[D] Servants of India

Correct Answer: [D] Servants of India

Short Explanation:

“Servants of India” was written by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, not Dr. Ambedkar.
The other books listed—“Thoughts on Pakistan,” “Annihilation of Caste,” and “The Problem of Rupee”—are all authored by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Analysis of Question 43

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Books and Authors
Topic	Books authored by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Purpose	Tests knowledge of literary contributions of prominent leaders.
Framing Technique	Includes books from similar contexts to mislead candidates.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with authors of key historical texts.
Key Focus Area	Modern History: Books authored by freedom fighters and social reformers.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key books and their authors, especially freedom movement leaders.

44. Consider the following statements:

I. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of mainland India is around 30°.
II. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two and half hours.
III. The 82°30’ E is the Standard Meridian of India.
IV. Time along the Standard Meridian is taken as the Indian Standard Time (IST).

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I-True, II-False, III-False, IV-True
[B] I-True, II-False, III-True, IV-True
[C] I-True, II-True, III-True, IV-False
[D] I-False, II-True, III-False, IV-True

Correct Answer: [B] I-True, II-False, III-True, IV-True

Short Explanation:

Statement I: True. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of mainland India is approximately 30° (8°N to 37°N latitude and 68°E to 97°E longitude).
Statement II: False. The time lag between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh is 2 hours, not 2.5 hours.
Statement III: True. The 82°30’ E longitude is the Standard Meridian of India.
Statement IV: True. Time along the Standard Meridian is considered as Indian Standard Time (IST).

Analysis of Question 44

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Indian Geography – Extent and Standard Time
Purpose	Tests understanding of geographical coordinates and time zones.
Framing Technique	Combines correct and incorrect factual statements to test conceptual clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires detailed knowledge of India’s geographical features.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Latitude, longitude, and Indian Standard Time.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize India’s latitudinal/longitudinal extents and IST-related details.

45. Which of the following statements are true? (JPSC 2024)

I. The Tropic of Cancer divides India into two halves.
II. The Tropic of Cancer divides the Indian International boundary into two halves.
III. Maximum East-West expansion of India lies along the Tropic of Cancer.
IV. Line joining the easternmost and westernmost points of India lies to the north of the Tropic of Cancer.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I and II
[B] II and IV
[C] I and III
[D] I and IV

Correct Answer: [D] I and IV

Short Explanation:

Statement I: True. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30’ N) divides India roughly into two halves (northern and southern parts).
Statement II: False. The Tropic of Cancer does not divide the Indian International boundary.
Statement III: False. The maximum East-West expansion does not strictly lie along the Tropic of Cancer.
Statement IV: True. The line joining India’s easternmost point (Arunachal Pradesh) and westernmost point (Gujarat) lies north of the Tropic of Cancer.

Analysis of Question 45

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Geography: Tropic of Cancer and Indian Coordinates
Purpose	Tests knowledge of India’s geographical features and boundaries.
Framing Technique	Includes a mix of true and false statements for conceptual testing.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires clarity on the Tropic of Cancer’s position and role.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Indian latitude, longitude, and geographic divisions.
Preparation Strategy	Study the Tropic of Cancer’s path across Indian states and features.

46. Which of the following Indian States shares its boundary with Bangladesh and Myanmar? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Nagaland
[B] Tripura
[C] Mizoram
[D] Manipur

Correct Answer: [C] Mizoram

Short Explanation:
Mizoram is the only Indian state that shares its borders with both Bangladesh (to the west) and Myanmar (to the east).

Analysis of Question 46

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Location-Based (Static Geography)
Topic	International Borders of Indian States
Purpose	Tests knowledge of Indian states sharing international borders.
Framing Technique	Includes distractors with states sharing borders with one country only.
Complexity	Low – Requires direct factual knowledge of state borders.
Key Focus Area	Geography: States of Northeast India and their international boundaries.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize Indian states and their respective international borders.

47. From north to south, Western Ghats are locally known as:

[A] Sahyadri-Nilgiri-Anamalai-Cardamom Hills
[B] Sahyadri-Anamalai-Nilgiri-Cardamom Hills
[C] Nilgiri-Sahyadri-Cardamom Hills-Anamalai
[D] Sahyadri-Nilgiri-Cardamom Hills-Anamalai

Correct Answer: [A] Sahyadri-Nilgiri-Anamalai-Cardamom Hills

Short Explanation:
The Western Ghats, running parallel to the western coast of India, are locally called:

Sahyadri (Maharashtra to Karnataka),
Nilgiri Hills (Tamil Nadu-Kerala border),
Anamalai Hills (Kerala-Tamil Nadu),
Cardamom Hills (southern Kerala).

Analysis of Question 47

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Indian Physiography
Topic	Western Ghats and Regional Names
Purpose	Tests knowledge of physiographic divisions and local terminology.
Framing Technique	Rearranges correct sequences to test accurate recall.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires clarity on regional names and their order.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Western Ghats and their divisions in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study major hills and mountain ranges along with their regional names.

48. **Which of the following rivers does not drain into the Arabian Sea? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Krishna
[B] Sabarmati
[C] Tapi
[D] Narmada

Correct Answer: [A] Krishna

Short Explanation:
The Krishna River flows eastward and drains into the Bay of Bengal, while the Sabarmati, Tapi, and Narmada Rivers flow westward and drain into the Arabian Sea.

Analysis of Question 48

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – River Systems
Topic	Rivers of India and their drainage patterns
Purpose	Tests knowledge of major Indian rivers and their flow directions.
Framing Technique	Distractors include rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of river drainage systems in India.
Key Focus Area	Geography: River systems, drainage patterns, and their directions.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize major rivers, their origins, and drainage basins.

49. Mango showers are common phenomena in which States of India? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka
[C] Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
[D] Kerala and Karnataka

Correct Answer: [D] Kerala and Karnataka

Short Explanation:
Mango showers are pre-monsoon rains that occur in Kerala and Karnataka during March-April. These showers help in the early ripening of mangoes, hence the name.

Analysis of Question 49

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Recall – Climate and Weather
Topic	Mango Showers – States affected
Purpose	Tests knowledge of regional climatic phenomena in India.
Framing Technique	Includes states unrelated to mango showers as distractors.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of specific climatic terms.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Indian climate, rainfall patterns, and pre-monsoon showers.
Preparation Strategy	Study regional rainfall phenomena and their agricultural significance.

50. Which of the following statements are true? (JPSC 2024)

I. Bajra is sown in hot and dry climatic conditions of western and central parts of India.
II. It is a hardy crop which can resist frequent dry spells.
III. Being a rainfed crop, the yield of this crop is low in Rajasthan.
IV. Rajasthan leads in its production.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] I and II
[B] II and III
[C] II and IV
[D] I and IV

Correct Answer: [D] I and IV

Short Explanation:

Statement I: True. Bajra (pearl millet) is grown in hot and dry climatic conditions of western and central India.
Statement II: True. Bajra is a hardy crop that can resist dry spells.
Statement III: False. Rajasthan has good Bajra yield despite being a rainfed crop.
Statement IV: True. Rajasthan is the leading state in Bajra production in India.

Analysis of Question 50

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Bajra – Crop Characteristics and Production
Purpose	Tests knowledge of agriculture, crops, and climatic conditions.
Framing Technique	Combines correct and incorrect statements to test conceptual clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of Bajra’s properties and geography.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Crops, their climatic conditions, and leading producing states.
Preparation Strategy	Study major crops, their characteristics, and production regions in India.

51. The dryland farming in India is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall of:

[A] Less than 25 cm
[B] Less than 50 cm
[C] Less than 75 cm
[D] Less than 100 cm

Correct Answer: [B] Less than 50 cm

Short Explanation:
Dryland farming is practiced in regions with low annual rainfall, typically below 50 cm. This farming method relies heavily on moisture conservation and drought-resistant crops.

Analysis of Question 51

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Agricultural Practices
Topic	Dryland Farming and Climate Conditions
Purpose	Tests understanding of agricultural practices in arid and semi-arid regions.
Framing Technique	Includes rainfall categories as distractors.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of farming techniques and environmental factors.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Dryland farming, water scarcity, and crop adaptations.
Preparation Strategy	Study different farming systems and regions with low rainfall in India.

52. As per the 2011 Census, inter-state female migration by place of last residence in India followed the sequence of:

[A] Rural to Urban-Urban to Rural-Rural to Urban-Rural to Rural
[B] Urban to Rural-Urban to Urban-Rural to Rural-Rural to Urban
[C] Rural to Rural-Rural to Urban-Urban to Rural-Urban to Rural
[D] Urban to Urban-Rural to Urban-Rural to Rural

Correct Answer: [A] Rural to Urban-Urban to Rural-Rural to Urban-Rural to Rural

Short Explanation:
According to the 2011 Census, the majority of inter-state female migration followed the pattern of migration from rural to urban areas, with significant migration from urban to rural regions as well.

Analysis of Question 52

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Census Data and Migration Patterns
Topic	Inter-state Migration and Demographics
Purpose	Tests knowledge of migration trends and demographic patterns in India.
Framing Technique	Includes multiple sequence-based patterns to check for understanding of migration.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with census data and migration patterns.
Key Focus Area	Geography and Population Studies: Migration and urbanization trends.
Preparation Strategy	Study census data related to migration, urbanization, and demographic shifts.

53. On the basis of population size, which of the following is the increasing order of urban agglomerations? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Chennai-Bengaluru-Ahmedabad-Hyderabad
[B] Bengaluru-Hyderabad-Ahmedabad-Chennai
[C] Ahmedabad-Hyderabad-Bengaluru-Chennai
[D] Hyderabad-Chennai-Bengaluru-Ahmedabad

Correct Answer: [C] Ahmedabad-Hyderabad-Bengaluru-Chennai

Short Explanation:
The correct order of urban agglomerations based on population size is:

Ahmedabad
Hyderabad
Bengaluru
Chennai (largest)

Analysis of Question 53

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Population and Urbanization Order
Topic	Urban Agglomerations and Population Size
Purpose	Tests understanding of population rankings of major Indian cities.
Framing Technique	Includes multiple city combinations to assess knowledge of urban population size.
Complexity	Low – Requires understanding of urban agglomeration population sizes.
Key Focus Area	Urban Geography: Population size, city rankings, and urbanization trends.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize major urban agglomerations, their population ranks, and sizes.

54. The provision for Election Commission in the Indian Constitution was inspired by which of the following countries? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Ireland
[B] United Kingdom (U.K.)
[C] United States of America (U.S.A.)
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] Ireland

Short Explanation:
The provision for the Election Commission in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Ireland model, where the Election Commission was made an autonomous body responsible for conducting elections.

Analysis of Question 54

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Constitutional History
Topic	Election Commission and its Inspirations
Purpose	Tests knowledge of constitutional provisions and their origins.
Framing Technique	Distractors include countries with similar electoral systems but not the origin.
Complexity	Low – Requires memorization of the historical basis of Indian provisions.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Election Commission and its design in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study the inspiration behind key provisions in the Indian Constitution.

55. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Rajya Sabha authorize the Parliament to legislate on a State subject by 2/3rd majority? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Article 249
[B] Article 243
[C] Article 259
[D] Article 250

Correct Answer: [A] Article 249

Short Explanation:
Article 249 of the Indian Constitution allows the Rajya Sabha to authorize Parliament to legislate on a State subject in the Union List by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority.

Analysis of Question 55

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Constitutional Knowledge – Articles of the Constitution
Topic	Legislative Powers and Articles
Purpose	Tests knowledge of legislative procedures and Articles of the Constitution.
Framing Technique	Includes related Articles to check understanding of legislative powers.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires clarity on Articles and their implications.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Indian Parliament, Rajya Sabha’s role, and the legislative process.
Preparation Strategy	Study the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists, and relevant Articles.

56. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says that Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Article 39
[B] Article 38
[C] Article 36
[D] Article 37

Correct Answer: [D] Article 37

Short Explanation:
Article 37 states that the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Analysis of Question 56

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Directive Principles and Constitution Articles
Topic	Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of DPSP and their legal status under the Constitution.
Framing Technique	Includes close alternatives to distract candidates.
Complexity	Low – Requires memorization of basic constitutional provisions.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Directive Principles, enforceability, and constitutional provisions.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize key Articles related to DPSP and their implementation.

57. Under which Amendment Act was the reservation in promotion for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ensured by inserting Clause ‘4A’ in Article 16? (JPSC 2024)

[A] 75th Amendment Act, 1994
[B] 76th Amendment Act, 1994
[C] 77th Amendment Act, 1995
[D] 108th Amendment Act, 2008

Correct Answer: [C] 77th Amendment Act, 1995

Short Explanation:
The 77th Amendment Act of 1995 inserted Clause 4A in Article 16, which provides for reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in government services.

Analysis of Question 57

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Amendments and their Provisions
Topic	Constitutional Amendments – Reservation in Promotion
Purpose	Tests knowledge of specific Amendments related to reservation policies.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other relevant Amendments to test accuracy.
Complexity	Low – Requires understanding of the Amendment Acts and their provisions.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Constitutional Amendments, Reservation policies in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study the major constitutional amendments and their impacts.

58. Which of the following statements are true about Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)? (JPSC 2024)

I. It was first established in 1997.
II. It is a statutory body.
III. It was established to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revising tariffs.
IV. Its headquarters is located in Mumbai.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] Only I, III and IV
[B] Only I, II and III
[C] Only II and III
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: [B] Only I, II and III

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. TRAI was indeed established in 1997.
Statement II: Correct. TRAI is a statutory body under the Indian government.
Statement III: Correct. TRAI was established to regulate telecom services and tariffs.
Statement IV: Incorrect. TRAI’s headquarters is located in New Delhi, not Mumbai.

Analysis of Question 58

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of TRAI’s establishment, functions, and location.
Framing Technique	Includes both true and false statements to test precision and clarity.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic factual knowledge about TRAI.
Key Focus Area	Polity and Governance: Regulatory bodies and their roles.
Preparation Strategy	Study key statutory bodies and their functions in the Indian government.

59. Which of the following Committees were appointed to inquire into the working of Panchayati Raj institutions in India? (JPSC 2024)

I. L. M. Singhvi Committee
II. G. V. K. Rao Committee
III. Ashok Mehta Committee
IV. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] Only I, II and III
[B] Only II, III and IV
[C] Only II and IV
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above

Short Explanation:
All the committees listed were appointed to study and recommend improvements for the Panchayati Raj system in India.

L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986)
G. V. K. Rao Committee (1985)
Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957)

Analysis of Question 59

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Committees and Reports on Panchayati Raj
Purpose	Tests knowledge of committees formed to evaluate local governance.
Framing Technique	Includes multiple committees with similar purposes for conceptual clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of Panchayati Raj reforms and related committees.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Decentralization, Panchayati Raj institutions, and governance committees.
Preparation Strategy	Study key committees on governance, their reports, and impact.

60. Which date is observed as the Good Governance Day in India? (JPSC 2024)

[A] 14th November
[B] 25th December
[C] 2nd October
[D] 15th May

Correct Answer: [B] 25th December

Short Explanation:
Good Governance Day is observed on 25th December in India, to honor the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and to promote good governance practices.

Analysis of Question 60

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – National Days and Observances
Topic	Good Governance Day and its significance
Purpose	Tests knowledge of national observances and their significance.
Framing Technique	Includes distractors related to important dates like 2nd October (Gandhi Jayanti).
Complexity	Low – Requires basic factual knowledge of Indian national observances.
Key Focus Area	Polity: National Days, observances, and their related figures.
Preparation Strategy	Study key national observances, their dates, and associated figures.

61. **Which among the following is not true about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? (JPSC 2024**)

I. The administrative expenses of his office are subject to vote of Parliament.
II. He is not eligible for further offices under the Government of India or of any State after he quits office.
III. The CAG can be removed from office on the ground of proven incapacity or misbehavior after an address by both the houses of Parliament.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] Only I and III
[B] Only II
[C] Only I
[D] Only I and II

Correct Answer: [B] Only II

Short Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. The administrative expenses of the CAG’s office are indeed subject to Parliamentary approval.
Statement II: Incorrect. The CAG is eligible for further offices after quitting his office, provided the office is not a government office.
Statement III: Correct. The CAG can be removed from office by an address to both Houses of Parliament on grounds of incapacity or misbehavior.

Analysis of Question 61

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Statement-Based (True/False)
Topic	Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
Purpose	Tests knowledge of CAG’s powers, roles, and constitutional provisions.
Framing Technique	Includes a combination of true and false statements to test clarity.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of the CAG’s constitutional provisions.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Functions of CAG, its removal, and its role in accountability.
Preparation Strategy	Study constitutional provisions regarding CAG and its relationship with Parliament.

62. Reasonable restrictions on ‘Exercise of Freedom of Speech and Expression’ under Article 19(2) are justified in the interest of which of the following conditions? (JPSC 2024)

I. Security of State
II. Defamation
III. Sedition
IV. Public order

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
[A] Only I and II
[B] Only I and III
[C] Only I, II, and IV
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above

Short Explanation:
Under Article 19(2), reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression can be imposed in the interest of:

Security of the State
Defamation
Sedition
Public order

Analysis of Question 62

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Fundamental Rights
Topic	Restrictions on Freedom of Speech and Expression
Purpose	Tests understanding of the reasonable restrictions under Article 19.
Framing Technique	Includes common restrictions and their implications in the Indian context.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of fundamental rights and their limits.
Key Focus Area	Polity: Article 19 and its exceptions.
Preparation Strategy	Study the exceptions to fundamental rights and reasonableness of restrictions.

63. Which Committee’s report paved the way for the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) 1996 for ensuring rural self-rule for people living in Scheduled Areas of India? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Ashok Mehta Committee
[B] G. V. K. Rao Committee
[C] Bhuria Committee
[D] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Correct Answer: [C] Bhuria Committee

Short Explanation:
The Bhuria Committee (1995) paved the way for the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) 1996, which extended the provisions of Panchayati Raj to Scheduled Areas for effective self-governance in tribal regions.

Analysis of Question 63

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Committees and their Impact
Topic	Committees related to Tribal Governance and Panchayati Raj
Purpose	Tests knowledge of committees that influenced tribal governance laws.
Framing Technique	Includes related committees to confuse the candidate.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of Panchayati Raj and tribal areas.
Key Focus Area	Polity: PESA, Panchayati Raj, and governance in tribal areas.
Preparation Strategy	Study the reports and contributions of important committees in governance.

64. Which area was given the maximum emphasis in the Second Five-Year Plan? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Agricultural sector
[B] Transport sector
[C] Industrial sector
[D] Poverty alleviation

Correct Answer: [C] Industrial sector

Short Explanation:
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) focused on the industrial sector, particularly heavy industries and infrastructure, to build the foundation for long-term economic growth.

Analysis of Question 64

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Five-Year Plans and Economic Planning
Topic	Economic Planning and Focus Areas of the Second Five-Year Plan
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the economic objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan.
Framing Technique	Includes other sectors to test the candidate’s knowledge of planning priorities.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of the focus areas of economic planning.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Five-Year Plans, industrial development, and growth strategies.
Preparation Strategy	Study the objectives and outcomes of each Five-Year Plan in India.

65. Which Index is considered as the basis for estimation of poverty in urban areas? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Consumer Price Index of Agricultural Labourers
[B] Wholesale Price Index
[C] Stock Index
[D] Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)

Correct Answer: [D] Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)

Short Explanation:
The Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is the primary index used for estimating poverty in urban areas, reflecting the changes in prices of a basket of goods and services consumed by industrial workers.

Analysis of Question 65

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Poverty Estimation
Topic	Poverty estimation and economic indices
Purpose	Tests knowledge of economic indicators and their role in poverty estimation.
Framing Technique	Includes similar indices related to consumer prices and inflation.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires familiarity with poverty estimation methods in India.
Key Focus Area	Economy: CPI, poverty indicators, and economic measurement tools.
Preparation Strategy	Study the economic indices used in poverty estimation and their relevance.

66. India is the largest producer as well as the largest consumer and importer of which of the following crops? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Wheat
[B] Cotton
[C] Pulses
[D] Sugarcane

Correct Answer: [C] Pulses

Short Explanation:
India is the largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses in the world. Pulses play an essential role in India’s dietary needs and agriculture.

Analysis of Question 66

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Agricultural Production and Trade
Topic	India’s Agriculture – Pulses
Purpose	Tests knowledge of India’s agricultural dominance in pulses.
Framing Technique	Includes other major crops to test awareness of India’s agricultural economy.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of India’s position in global agricultural trade.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: India’s position in the global market for major crops.
Preparation Strategy	Study India’s agricultural trends, focusing on production, consumption, and trade.

67. **Which of the following is not a cash crop? (JPSC 2024**)

[A] Jute
[B] Millet
[C] Sugarcane
[D] Peanut

Correct Answer: [B] Millet

Short Explanation:
Millet is not considered a cash crop; it is a food crop grown primarily for local consumption.
On the other hand, Jute, Sugarcane, and Peanut are major cash crops grown for commercial purposes.

Analysis of Question 67

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Agricultural Crops
Topic	Cash Crops and Food Crops in India
Purpose	Tests understanding of the difference between cash crops and food crops.
Framing Technique	Includes common crops to check familiarity with their classification.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of crop types.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Classification of crops based on purpose.
Preparation Strategy	Study different crops and their classification in agriculture.

68. Which indices are the basis for determining sustainable development? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Ecology
[B] Social and cultural
[C] Economic
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above

Short Explanation:
Sustainable development is measured using multiple indices, including:

Ecological (environmental sustainability),
Social and cultural (social well-being),
Economic (economic growth and stability).

Analysis of Question 68

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Sustainable Development
Topic	Indices for Sustainable Development
Purpose	Tests knowledge of sustainable development and its measuring indices.
Framing Technique	Includes all relevant indices to emphasize a comprehensive approach.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of sustainable development dimensions.
Key Focus Area	Environment, Society, Economy: Indicators of sustainability.
Preparation Strategy	Study the dimensions and indicators used in sustainable development.

69. In which year was the Sustainable Development Conference held in Johannesburg? (JPSC 2024)

[A] 1997
[B] 2002
[C] 2003
[D] 2004

Correct Answer: [B] 2002

Short Explanation:
The Johannesburg Summit on Sustainable Development took place in 2002, focusing on global initiatives for sustainable development.

Analysis of Question 69

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – International Conferences
Topic	Johannesburg Summit (2002) on Sustainable Development
Purpose	Tests knowledge of global sustainability conferences and their timing.
Framing Technique	Distractors include other significant years in environmental conferences.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of major environmental summits.
Key Focus Area	International Relations: Global efforts for sustainable development.
Preparation Strategy	Study the key international conferences related to sustainability.

70. What is sustainable development?

[A] Economic development
[B] Environmental development
[C] Social development
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: [D] All of the above

Short Explanation:
Sustainable development involves achieving economic, environmental, and social development in a balanced and long-term manner, without depleting resources for future generations.

Analysis of Question 70

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Sustainable Development
Topic	Definition of Sustainable Development
Purpose	Tests understanding of the three pillars of sustainable development.
Framing Technique	Includes all aspects of sustainable development to emphasize its holistic nature.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires comprehensive knowledge of the dimensions of sustainability.
Key Focus Area	Environment: The concept and dimensions of sustainable development.
Preparation Strategy	Study the global and national frameworks for sustainable development.

71. When did the term ‘Sustainable Development’ come into existence? (JPSC 2024)

[A] 1980
[B] 1987
[C] 1992
[D] 1998

Correct Answer: [B] 1987

Short Explanation:
The term ‘Sustainable Development’ gained significant recognition with the publication of the Brundtland Report in 1987, which defined it as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Analysis of Question 71

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Historical Context of Sustainability
Topic	Origins of the term Sustainable Development
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the global recognition of sustainable development.
Framing Technique	Includes related years to assess knowledge of the correct timeline.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of the historical emergence of the concept.
Key Focus Area	Environment: Sustainable development and its early usage.
Preparation Strategy	Study the history of sustainable development and key international documents.

72. When was the process of economic reforms started in India?

[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1993
[D] 1994

Correct Answer: [B] 1991

Short Explanation:
India’s economic reforms began in 1991, after a balance of payments crisis, under the leadership of then Finance Minister Manmohan Singh, which included liberalization, privatization, and globalization of the Indian economy.

Analysis of Question 72

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Indian Economic Reforms
Topic	The Liberalization and Economic Reforms in India
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the beginning of India’s economic reform process.
Framing Technique	Distractors include years close to the actual start of reforms.
Complexity	Low – Requires familiarity with modern Indian economic history.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Economic reforms and their impact on India.
Preparation Strategy	Study the timeline of economic reforms and their key components.

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I	List-II
(a) Price discrimination	(i) Ragnar Nurkse
(b) Land reform	(ii) Benton Woods
(c) Victorious circle of poverty	(iii) Land monopoly
(d) I.B.R.D.	(iv) Land consolidation

Code:
[A] (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)
[B] (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)
[C] (a-iii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-ii)
[D] (a-iv), (b-iii), (c-ii), (d-i)

Correct Answer: [C] (a-iii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-ii)

Short Explanation:

Price discrimination is associated with land monopoly (c-iii).
Land reform is connected with land consolidation (b-iv).
Victorious circle of poverty relates to Ragnar Nurkse’s theory (c-i).
I.B.R.D. (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) was associated with Benton Woods (d-ii).

Analysis of Question 73

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Matching of Concepts and Theories
Topic	Economic Theories and their Theorists
Purpose	Tests understanding of key economic theories and their contributors.
Framing Technique	Includes distractors with common economic terms to assess conceptual clarity.
Complexity	High – Requires detailed knowledge of economic theories and theorists.
Key Focus Area	Economy: Land reforms, poverty, and key economic theories.
Preparation Strategy	Study key economic concepts and their associated theorists or practitioners.

74. What do we call the distance between two consecutive compressions of a sound wave? (JPSC 2024)

[A] Wave number
[B] Frequency
[C] Wavelength
[D] Amplitude

Correct Answer: [C] Wavelength

Short Explanation:
The wavelength is the distance between two consecutive compressions (or rarefactions) of a sound wave. It is a fundamental property of waves, including sound waves.

Analysis of Question 74

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Wave Properties
Topic	Sound Waves and their properties
Purpose	Tests knowledge of wave characteristics, specifically wavelength.
Framing Technique	Includes other terms related to wave properties to test precise understanding.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of wave behavior.
Key Focus Area	Physics: Properties of sound waves.
Preparation Strategy	Study wave properties like wavelength, frequency, and amplitude.

75. Which of the following is a cause of echo?

[A] Absorption of sound
[B] Transmission of sound
[C] Reflection of sound
[D] Refraction of sound

Correct Answer: [C] Reflection of sound

Short Explanation:
An echo is caused by the reflection of sound waves from a surface. When sound waves reflect off hard surfaces, they can return to the listener, creating an echo effect.

Analysis of Question 75

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Sound and Echo
Topic	Sound Properties and Echo Formation
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the cause of echo and sound wave behavior.
Framing Technique	Includes other wave phenomena (e.g., refraction) to assess clarity.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of sound wave behavior and echo.
Key Focus Area	Physics: Sound propagation and its interactions with surfaces.
Preparation Strategy	Study the formation of echo and sound reflection principles.

76. Light year is a unit of:

[A] Distance
[B] Time
[C] Energy
[D] Intensity of light

Correct Answer: [A] Distance

Short Explanation:
A light year is a unit of distance. It represents the distance that light travels in one year (approximately 9.46 trillion kilometers).

Analysis of Question 76

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Units and Measurements
Topic	Light Year and its definition
Purpose	Tests knowledge of light year as a unit of distance.
Framing Technique	Includes other physical quantities to test understanding.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of scientific units.
Key Focus Area	Physics: Units of measurement in astronomy and related fields.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize common scientific units such as light year, parsecs, etc.

77. Which of the following cannot travel in vacuum?

[A] Light
[B] Heat
[C] Sound
[D] Electromagnetic waves

Correct Answer: [C] Sound

Short Explanation:
Sound requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel, so it cannot propagate in a vacuum. Light, heat, and electromagnetic waves can travel through the vacuum of space.

Analysis of Question 77

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Properties of Waves
Topic	Wave Propagation in Different Mediums
Purpose	Tests knowledge of how different types of waves behave in a vacuum.
Framing Technique	Includes different wave types (e.g., sound vs. electromagnetic waves) to test understanding.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of the nature of sound and other waves.
Key Focus Area	Physics: Wave propagation in different environments (vacuum, air, etc.).
Preparation Strategy	Study the behavior of waves in different mediums (vacuum vs. materials).

78. The process of superposition of any information on radio waves is named as:

[A] Transmission
[B] Modulation
[C] Demodulation
[D] Reception

Correct Answer: [B] Modulation

Short Explanation:
Modulation is the process of superimposing information (audio, video, etc.) onto radio waves to transmit it over long distances. There are different types of modulation (AM, FM).

Analysis of Question 78

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Radio Wave Transmission
Topic	Modulation and Transmission Techniques
Purpose	Tests knowledge of modulation in radio communication.
Framing Technique	Includes related processes (e.g., demodulation) to assess understanding.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic understanding of radio waves and their uses.
Key Focus Area	Physics: Radio wave transmission and communication systems.
Preparation Strategy	Study the process of modulation and demodulation in communication.

79. Angora wool is extracted from which of the following animals?

[A] Sheep
[B] Goat
[C] Rabbit
[D] Fox

Correct Answer: [C] Rabbit

Short Explanation:
Angora wool is obtained from the Angora rabbit, known for its fine and soft wool. It is not derived from sheep, goats, or foxes.

Analysis of Question 79

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Animal Products and their Uses
Topic	Wool Types and the animals from which they are obtained
Purpose	Tests knowledge of Angora wool and its source.
Framing Technique	Includes other animals to check for clarity and precision in understanding.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of animal products.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Wool production and animal sources.
Preparation Strategy	Study different types of wool and their sources.

80. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

[A] RAM is a temporary storage area
[B] RAM is like a hard disk storage
[C] RAM is volatile memory
[D] Information stored in RAM is gone when the computer is turned off

Correct Answer: [B] RAM is like a hard disk storage

Short Explanation:
RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory, meaning that it only holds data while the system is powered on. It is not like hard disk storage, which is non-volatile and retains data even when the computer is turned off.

Analysis of Question 80

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Computer Hardware
Topic	RAM and its characteristics
Purpose	Tests understanding of RAM and its comparison with other storage types.
Framing Technique	Includes technical details about storage types to test precision.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of computer memory systems.
Key Focus Area	Technology: Memory storage systems in computers.
Preparation Strategy	Study the difference between RAM and other types of storage like hard drives.

81. Using websites to pour out one’s grievances is called

[A] Web plea
[B] Web hate
[C] Cyber ranting
[D] Cyber venting

Correct Answer: [D] Cyber venting

Short Explanation:
The term cyber venting refers to expressing grievances or frustrations online, often through social media or forums.

Analysis of Question 81

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Internet Terminology
Topic	Internet Behavior and Terminology
Purpose	Tests knowledge of common terms related to online behavior.
Framing Technique	Includes similar-sounding terms to test awareness of internet slang.
Complexity	Low – Requires familiarity with online behavior terminology.
Key Focus Area	Technology: Online behavior and internet communication.
Preparation Strategy	Study internet slang and terminology related to cyber behavior.

82. Which part of Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculations and makes decisions?

[A] Alternate Local Unit
[B] American Logic Unit
[C] Alternating Logic Unit
[D] Arithmetic Logic Unit

Correct Answer: [D] Arithmetic Logic Unit

Short Explanation:
The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the part of the CPU that performs all arithmetic calculations (addition, subtraction, etc.) and makes logical decisions based on data input.

Analysis of Question 82

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Computer Hardware Components
Topic	CPU components and their functions
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the CPU structure, specifically the ALU.
Framing Technique	Includes terms that sound similar to ALU to assess knowledge of computer hardware.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of CPU components.
Key Focus Area	Technology: Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) and its role in the CPU.
Preparation Strategy	Study the structure of CPU and the functions of its components like the ALU.

83. ICAR Day is celebrated on:

[A] 23rd December
[B] 16th July
[C] 22nd April
[D] 23rd November

Correct Answer: [A] 23rd December

Short Explanation:
ICAR Day (Indian Council of Agricultural Research Day) is celebrated on 23rd December every year to honor the establishment of ICAR in 1929.

Analysis of Question 83

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – National Days
Topic	ICAR Day and its significance
Purpose	Tests knowledge of agricultural celebrations and their significance.
Framing Technique	Includes other dates to confuse the candidate.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of ICAR Day.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Key dates related to agricultural organizations in India.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important agricultural days and their relevance.

84. Global Gene Bank of rice is situated at:

[A] Philippines
[B] Pusa, New Delhi
[C] Cuttack
[D] Hyderabad

Correct Answer: [B] Pusa, New Delhi

Short Explanation:
The Global Gene Bank of rice is located at Pusa, New Delhi, and is managed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI). It plays a critical role in rice conservation and research.

Analysis of Question 84

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Agricultural Research Institutions
Topic	Location of the Global Gene Bank of rice
Purpose	Tests knowledge of important agricultural research institutions in India.
Framing Technique	Includes other possible locations for confusion.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of the location of the Global Gene Bank.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Importance of genetic conservation and research centers.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important agricultural research institutes and centers in India.

85. Sugarcane is a:

[A] Short day plant
[B] Long day plant
[C] Day neutral plant
[D] Photo insensitive plant

Correct Answer: [A] Short day plant

Short Explanation:
Sugarcane is classified as a short day plant, meaning it requires a certain amount of darkness to flower and grow optimally, typically during shorter days.

Analysis of Question 85

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Plant Classification
Topic	Classification of Sugarcane as a plant
Purpose	Tests knowledge of crop biology and plant growth characteristics.
Framing Technique	Includes other plant types to test knowledge of day length types.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of plant growth conditions.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Crop biology and environmental factors influencing growth.
Preparation Strategy	Study the classification of plants based on their photoperiod requirements.

86. How many chromosomes are found in the endosperm of maize?

[A] 20
[B] 30
[C] 40
[D] 23

Correct Answer: [C] 40

Short Explanation:
The endosperm of maize contains 40 chromosomes, which is the result of the combination of the maternal and paternal contributions during fertilization.

Analysis of Question 86

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Plant Genetics
Topic	Chromosomes in Maize and its genetic composition
Purpose	Tests knowledge of genetics and chromosomal composition in plants.
Framing Technique	Includes other common chromosome numbers to test accuracy.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of chromosomal numbers in plants.
Key Focus Area	Genetics: Chromosome number in plants and inheritance.
Preparation Strategy	Study the genetic structure of common crops like maize.

87. Which of the following genomic conditions is found in commercial edible wheat?

[A] AB genome
[B] ABC genome
[C] ABCD genome
[D] ABD genome

Correct Answer: [A] AB genome

Short Explanation:
Commercial edible wheat (such as bread wheat) has an AB genome, consisting of three sets of chromosomes derived from two different species of wheat.

Analysis of Question 87

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Genetics and Plant Genomes
Topic	Genome types in commercial wheat
Purpose	Tests knowledge of genomic composition in cultivated crops.
Framing Technique	Includes other possible genome types to test accuracy.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of genetic make-up of commercial crops.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Wheat genetics and its classification based on genomes.
Preparation Strategy	Study plant genomes, especially for common crops like wheat.

88. Alkaline soils can be improved:

[A] By the use of lime
[B] By the use of gypsum
[C] By the use of saline water
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: [A] By the use of lime

Short Explanation:
Alkaline soils can be improved by adding lime, which helps in neutralizing the soil’s alkalinity, making it more suitable for plant growth.

Analysis of Question 88

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Agricultural Soils
Topic	Soil improvement methods
Purpose	Tests knowledge of improving alkaline soils for better agricultural use.
Framing Technique	Includes distractors related to common soil treatments.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of soil treatment methods.
Key Focus Area	Agriculture: Soil types and their improvements.
Preparation Strategy	Study common methods to improve different types of soils.

89. Which of the following signifies the Lota Mahaj?

[A] Centre of the Revolt of Tilka Manjhi
[B] Centre of the Stone Age of primitive people
[C] A major centre of the 1857 Sepoy Struggle
[D] A major centre of the Kol Uprising

Correct Answer: [D] A major centre of the Kol Uprising

Short Explanation:
Lota Mahaj is a significant historical site associated with the Kol Uprising in the late 19th century, led by Niranjan Singh against British colonial rule.

Analysis of Question 89

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Historical Events
Topic	Kol Uprising and its centers of resistance
Purpose	Tests knowledge of key events related to Indian Revolts.
Framing Technique	Includes other revolts and movements for comparison.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of historical uprisings.
Key Focus Area	History: Revolt of 1857 and later Indian uprisings.
Preparation Strategy	Study key Indian uprisings and their locations.

90. Which elephant of the Chhotanagpur Nagpur Raj has been mentioned in Jharkhandnama?

[A] Moti Chandra
[B] Bharat Chandra
[C] Nagpuri Pitho
[D] Shyam Chandra

Correct Answer: [A] Moti Chandra

Short Explanation:
Moti Chandra is the elephant mentioned in the historical text Jharkhandnama, which is associated with the Chhotanagpur Nagpur Raj.

Analysis of Question 90

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Historical Figures
Topic	Chhotanagpur Nagpur Raj and its elephants
Purpose	Tests knowledge of historical figures mentioned in regional texts.
Framing Technique	Includes other names of elephants to check for accuracy.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires knowledge of regional history and cultural references.
Key Focus Area	History: Chhotanagpur Nagpur Raj and its historical significance.
Preparation Strategy	Study historical texts and regional history for key figures.

91. Rohini, one of the major centers of 1857 uprising, is located today in which district?

[A] Godda
[B] Jamtara
[C] Deoghar
[D] Dumka

Correct Answer: [C] Deoghar

Short Explanation:
Rohini was a significant center during the 1857 uprising in Jharkhand. Today, it is located in the Deoghar district.

Analysis of Question 91

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Historical Locations
Topic	1857 Uprising and its significant centers
Purpose	Tests knowledge of historical sites associated with the 1857 rebellion.
Framing Technique	Includes other districts to test precise knowledge.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of regional historical centers.
Key Focus Area	History: Centers of the 1857 Uprising and their modern locations.
Preparation Strategy	Study key regional centers related to Indian uprisings.

92. Who is the most important God of the Santhal Tribe?

[A] Marang Buru
[B] Marang Manjhi
[C] Moreko Turiko
[D] Thakur Deo

Correct Answer: [A] Marang Buru

Short Explanation:
Marang Buru is the most important deity worshipped by the Santhal Tribe. He is considered the god of the mountains and the protector of the tribe.

Analysis of Question 92

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Tribal Beliefs and Deities
Topic	Santhal Tribe and their religious beliefs
Purpose	Tests knowledge of tribal deities and their significance.
Framing Technique	Includes other lesser-known gods to test precision in tribal knowledge.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of tribal deities and their importance.
Key Focus Area	Anthropology: Religious practices and beliefs of indigenous tribes.
Preparation Strategy	Study tribal religions and their key deities in India.

93. In which town was the Rajkumari Leper Asylum, 1895 established?

[A] Deoghar
[B] Ranchi
[C] Daltonganj
[D] Hazaribagh

Correct Answer: [A] Deoghar

Short Explanation:
The Rajkumari Leper Asylum was established in Deoghar in 1895 to care for leprosy patients.

Analysis of Question 93

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Historical Institutions
Topic	Rajkumari Leper Asylum and its historical context
Purpose	Tests knowledge of historical institutions and their locations.
Framing Technique	Includes other district names to assess precision in historical recall.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of historical health institutions.
Key Focus Area	History: Leprosy care institutions and their establishment.
Preparation Strategy	Study key health and social welfare institutions in colonial India.

94. By which term does the Hill Kharia community refer to a body bigger than the Panchayat?

[A] Parha
[B] Chira
[C] Para
[D] Bara Jutan

Correct Answer: [A] Parha

Short Explanation:
In the Hill Kharia community, a Parha refers to a body bigger than the Panchayat. It is a larger social body governing multiple smaller Panchayats.

Analysis of Question 94

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – Tribal Social Structures
Topic	Hill Kharia community and its social structure
Purpose	Tests understanding of tribal governance structures and their terminology.
Framing Technique	Includes other terms related to tribal governance to check for accuracy.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of tribal governance terms.
Key Focus Area	Anthropology: Tribal social systems and their hierarchies.
Preparation Strategy	Study tribal communities and their social structures in India.

95. In which term does the following refer to the head of the village?

[A] Khuntkatti Raiyat
[B] Jethi Raiyat
[C] Asami
[D] Bhogta

Correct Answer: [A] Khuntkatti Raiyat

Short Explanation:
The term Khuntkatti Raiyat refers to the head of a village in certain tribal areas. This term is used to designate the person responsible for land distribution and governance in the community.

Analysis of Question 95

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Tribal Leadership and Terms
Topic	Tribal leadership and village head terms in India
Purpose	Tests knowledge of tribal leadership titles and their responsibilities.
Framing Technique	Includes other terms for leadership in villages to test accuracy.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of tribal governance structures.
Key Focus Area	Anthropology: Tribal leadership and village administration.
Preparation Strategy	Study the different tribal leadership roles and their functions.

96. The ‘Thendirri’ and ‘Biddiri’ rituals are related to:

[A] Santhal matrimony
[B] Oran birth ceremony
[C] Munda last rites
[D] Oran last rites

Correct Answer: [A] Santhal matrimony

Short Explanation:
The ‘Thendirri’ and ‘Biddiri’ rituals are part of the Santhal matrimony ceremonies, significant to the Santhal tribe’s marriage customs.

Analysis of Question 96

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Tribal Rituals
Topic	Santhal matrimony and its associated rituals
Purpose	Tests knowledge of tribal marriage rituals and customs.
Framing Technique	Includes other cultural ceremonies for clarity and understanding.
Complexity	Moderate – Requires understanding of tribal customs and their significance.
Key Focus Area	Anthropology: Tribal customs and marriage rituals in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study the key rituals of tribal communities, focusing on marriage and life cycles.

97. In which year was Giridih connected with the railways?

[A] 1871
[B] 1885
[C] 1904
[D] 1915

Correct Answer: [C] 1904

Short Explanation:
Giridih, a town in Jharkhand, was connected to the railway network in 1904, which helped in boosting trade and connectivity in the region.

Analysis of Question 97

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Railway History
Topic	Railway connections in Giridih
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the railway network and its development in India.
Framing Technique	Includes other possible years to check for historical accuracy.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of railway connections in India.
Key Focus Area	History: Development of rail networks in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study the railway history and significant years of railway expansion in India.

98. The famous pilgrim centre Parasnath is in the closest proximity of which of the following?

[A] Isri
[B] Dumri
[C] Madhuban
[D] Kalkot

Correct Answer: [C] Madhuban

Short Explanation:
Parasnath, a renowned pilgrimage site for Jains, is located near Madhuban in the Giridih district of Jharkhand.

Analysis of Question 98

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – Pilgrimage Centers
Topic	Parasnath pilgrimage center and its proximity
Purpose	Tests knowledge of the location of significant pilgrimage centers in India.
Framing Technique	Includes similar towns to test familiarity with local geography.
Complexity	Low – Requires basic knowledge of important pilgrimage centers.
Key Focus Area	Geography: Religious places and their locations in India.
Preparation Strategy	Study key pilgrimage centers and their surrounding areas in India.

99. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] World Environment Day – 5th June
[B] World Earth Day – 22nd April
[C] World Homeopathy Day – 12th March
[D] International Day of Yoga – 21st June

Correct Answer: [C] World Homeopathy Day – 12th March

Short Explanation:
World Homeopathy Day is celebrated on 10th April each year, not on 12th March. The other dates are correctly matched with their respective days.

Analysis of Question 99

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Conceptual Understanding – International Days and Dates
Topic	Matching International Days with their correct dates
Purpose	Tests knowledge of important global observances and their dates.
Framing Technique	Includes one incorrect pair to test attention to detail.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of global observances and their correct dates.
Key Focus Area	Current Affairs: Key International Days and their significance.
Preparation Strategy	Memorize important international observances and their dates.

100. Which of the following States has launched the scheme ‘Learn and Earn’ in 2023?

[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Haryana

Correct Answer: [B] Madhya Pradesh

Short Explanation:
Madhya Pradesh launched the ‘Learn and Earn’ scheme in 2023 to promote skill development and provide job opportunities to youth through education and training.

Analysis of Question 100

Parameter	Details
Question Type	Factual Recall – State Government Schemes
Topic	‘Learn and Earn’ scheme launched in Madhya Pradesh
Purpose	Tests knowledge of recent government schemes and their objectives.
Framing Technique	Includes other states to assess knowledge of recent state schemes.
Complexity	Low – Requires knowledge of recent state government initiatives.
Key Focus Area	Government Policies: Skill development and employment schemes.
Preparation Strategy	Study recent state schemes focused on education and employment.

Why JPSC Exam Analysis is Important

The Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC) exam is one of the most competitive and prestigious examinations for aspirants aiming to join administrative services in Jharkhand. The JPSC 2024 question paper showcased a well-balanced approach to evaluating candidates on their knowledge of static subjects, dynamic current affairs, and state-specific topics. This comprehensive analysis will help aspirants understand how JPSC questions are framed and provide insights into the exam’s pattern and preparation strategy.

Understanding the question pattern and framing style of the JPSC exam is crucial for aspirants to:

Identify high-priority topics for focused preparation.
Develop an effective revision strategy for Jharkhand-centric topics.
Practice questions aligned with the difficulty level of the exam.
Enhance performance in both static and dynamic sections of the syllabus.

Key Features of the JPSC 2024 Question Paper

Balanced Syllabus Coverage:
The 2024 JPSC question paper demonstrated balanced coverage of the entire syllabus, with questions drawn from topics like:
- Indian Polity: Constitutional provisions, governance mechanisms, and recent amendments.
- Economy: Economic reforms, agriculture, and the fiscal policies impacting Jharkhand.
- History: Focus on regional history, tribal movements, and national movements.
- Geography: Physical geography of India and Jharkhand, including mineral resources and climate.
- Environment: Conservation efforts, environmental challenges specific to Jharkhand, and global climate concerns.
- General Science: Emphasis on application-based science questions.
- Current Affairs: Both national and state-specific events.
Inclination Towards Regional Context:
A significant number of questions were Jharkhand-specific, reflecting the commission’s priority of testing candidates’ understanding of the state’s unique identity:
- Historical tribal movements like Birsa Munda Movement, Santhal Rebellion, and Kol Uprising.
- Cultural aspects like Sarhul Festival, Jharkhandi art forms, and tribal languages.
- Geography-centric topics such as Damodar Valley Corporation, mining activities, and forest reserves.
Difficulty Level:
The exam featured a mix of:
- Easy questions that tested fundamental knowledge.
- Moderate-level questions that required critical understanding of concepts.
- Difficult questions designed to test analytical ability, decision-making, and interlinking of topics.
Incorporation of Current Affairs:
Current affairs accounted for nearly 25-30% of the paper, with questions focusing on:
- Government schemes like PM Awas Yojana and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana.
- Jharkhand government initiatives, including Mukhyamantri Sukanya Yojana and Birsa Harit Gram Yojana.
- International developments such as G20 Summit and COP28 discussions.

Subject-Wise Analysis of the JPSC 2024 Question Paper

1. General Studies Paper-I

This section focused on static subjects like history, polity, and geography, coupled with contemporary events.

History:
- A mix of ancient, medieval, and modern Indian history was observed.
- Key focus areas included freedom movements, tribal leaders, and Jharkhand’s history during the colonial period.
- Example: “Which tribal rebellion influenced the Indian independence struggle in Jharkhand the most?”
Polity:
- Questions were framed on fundamental rights, Panchayati Raj institutions, and constitutional amendments.
- Example: “Which article of the Constitution empowers the Governor to take special measures for tribal welfare?”
Geography:
- Strong emphasis on Jharkhand’s physical and economic geography.
- Example: “Which district in Jharkhand has the highest concentration of mica reserves?”

2. General Studies Paper-II

Paper-II largely focused on Jharkhand-centric topics with significant emphasis on socio-economic conditions and governance.

Economy:
- Jharkhand’s dependence on mining and agriculture was a recurring theme.
- Questions on schemes aimed at poverty alleviation, industrial development, and employment generation dominated.
- Example: “What is the impact of coal mining on the socio-economic condition of Jharkhand’s tribal population?”
Environment and Ecology:
- Highlighted issues like deforestation, wildlife protection, and climate change.
- Questions also targeted government policies like CAMPA funds and Jharkhand State Action Plan on Climate Change.
- Example: “Discuss the role of forest cover in mitigating climate change with reference to Jharkhand.”

3. General Studies Paper-III

Paper-III was a test of analytical skills and data interpretation.

Science and Technology:
- Application-based questions on renewable energy, space missions, and agro-technology.
- Example: “What role can solar energy play in addressing the power shortages in rural Jharkhand?”
Current Events:
- Questions included recent debates, government policies, and international relations affecting Jharkhand.
- Example: “How does India’s G20 Presidency impact development projects in mineral-rich states like Jharkhand?”

Types of Questions in JPSC 2024 Exam

Fact-Based Questions:
These were direct and easy to answer with good preparation.
Example: “Which is the largest river in Jharkhand?”
Analytical Questions:
Required in-depth understanding and correlation between topics.
Example: “Discuss the role of mineral resources in shaping Jharkhand’s industrial development.”
Assertion-Reasoning Questions:
Tested the logical reasoning and critical thinking of candidates.
Example: “Assertion (A): Jharkhand has significant coal reserves. Reason (R): It accounts for a major portion of India’s energy generation.”
Match the Following:
Example: “Match the following tribal leaders with their movements:
(a) Sidhu Kanhu – (1) Santhal Rebellion
(b) Birsa Munda – (2) Ulgulan
(c) Tilka Manjhi – (3) Kol Rebellion.”

Framing of Questions in JPSC

JPSC takes Jharkhand-Centric Approach:
Questions are often framed to evaluate candidates’ knowledge of local issues, making regional studies crucial.
Interdisciplinary Topics in JPSC:
The paper integrated multiple topics, such as the link between environment and economy, or the intersection of history and culture.
Focus on Relevance:
JPSC emphasizes current developments and their implications on state and national levels.

Preparation Tips Based on JPSC 2024 Analysis

Strengthen Regional Knowledge:
Devote significant time to studying Jharkhand’s history, geography, and culture for JPSC.
Current Affairs for JPSC Exam:
Focus on events from the past 1.5 years, emphasizing state and national developments.
Mock Tests:
Practice JPSC -specific mock tests to become familiar with the exam pattern.
Interdisciplinary Approach:
Understand how different subjects overlap, such as history influencing political policies or geography shaping the economy to prepare for JPSC Exam.
Conceptual Clarity is must in JPSC preparation:
Go beyond rote memorization to build analytical thinking skills.

Conclusion

The 2024 JPSC question paper highlights the commission’s approach to testing candidates holistically. By focusing on Jharkhand’s unique context and blending it with national and global issues, the paper ensures that only well-prepared and capable aspirants can qualify. The key takeaway for future aspirants is to prepare with a strategic approach, emphasizing both regional and national perspectives, coupled with a sound understanding of current affairs. Following this analysis, aspirants can align their preparation strategy to excel in upcoming JPSC exams.

For more detailed information and updates, candidates are encouraged to visit the official JPSC website.

posts related to JPSC on LearnPro’s website:

JPSC Notes: Access expertly curated notes covering essential topics for both JPSC Prelims and Mains exams.
14th JPSC PT Exam Comprehensive Test Series: Enhance your preparation with a structured test series designed to cover all aspects of the JPSC Preliminary Test syllabus, emphasizing Jharkhand-specific topics and current affairs.
JPSC Notification 2024: Stay informed about the latest updates, including exam dates, eligibility criteria, and vacancy details for the JPSC 2024 examination.
General Introduction to Jharkhand for JPSC Exam: Gain a comprehensive understanding of Jharkhand’s history, geography, economy, and culture, crucial for the JPSC exam.

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1. Which of the following pairs is Correctly matched? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 1

2. In which of the following cities was the Global Buddhist Summit held on 20th April, 2023? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 2

3. Which of the following countries has awarded the highest civilian award ‘The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star’ to the President of India during her visit in 2023?

Analysis of Question 3

4. Who is the author of the book The Coalition Years? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 4

5. With reference to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), which of the following statements is/are correct? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 5

6. With reference to G20 (Group of 20), which of the following statements is/are correct? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 6

7. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India talks about the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?(JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 7

8. In 2023, which US State recently declared holiday in public schools on the festival of Diwali? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 8

9. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Analysis of Question 9

10. In which of the following States has the world’s largest railway platform been inaugurated? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 10

11. Who was the Chief Guest for the Republic Day in 2023?

Analysis of Question 11

12. The Indian Government has launched a rescue operation in Sudan to evacuate its stranded citizens. This operation is known as:

Analysis of Question 12

13. Which architect has designed the new building of the Indian Parliament? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 13

14. Which of the following statements is/are true about Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)?

Analysis of Question 14

15. Agricultural drought is defined as:

Analysis of Question 15

16. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services is located in which of the following cities? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 16

17. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Yaya Tso Lake? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 17

18. The Lakdawala Committee (1993) is related to: (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 18

19. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by UN General Assembly, does not include which of the following? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 19

20. Which of the following is not considered a subsidy box for agriculture in WTO? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 20

21. Which of the following statements is/are true for alluvial soil? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 21

22. PM KUSUM Scheme is related to:

Analysis of Question 22

23. Labour force participation rate is defined as:

Analysis of Question 23

24. World Social Security Report is released by which of the following? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 24

25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kharai camels? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 25

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Gini Coefficient? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 26

27. Where is Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve located? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 27

28. Earth Overshoot Day is related to:

Analysis of Question 28

25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kharai camels? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 25

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Gini Coefficient? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 26

27. Where is Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve located? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 27

28. Earth Overshoot Day is related to:

Analysis of Question 28

29. At which of the following Indus Valley sites was a terracotta replica relating to exploration of a plough discovered? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 29

30. In which district of Jharkhand is the Neolithic archaeological site Barudih located? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 30

31. Which one of the following administrative structures in ascending order is correct? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 31

32. Prabhavati Gupta was the ruler of:

Analysis of Question 32

33. The Sangam text Tolkappiyam is a work on:

Analysis of Question 33

34. Who was responsible for the smooth functioning of the Mughal Mansabdari system? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 34

35. During the Mughal period, the coins minted during the previous reign were called:

Analysis of Question 35

36. The capital of Vijayanagar Empire was situated on the bank of which river? (JPSC 2024)

Analysis of Question 36

4. **Who is the author of the book The Coalition Years? (JPSC 2024**)

33. **The Sangam text Tolkappiyam is a work on:**

38. **Who among the following is not a painter of Jahangir’s period? (JPSC 2024**)

41. **With which of the following newspapers was Gandhiji not associated? (JPSC 2024**)

43. **Which of the following books has not been written by Dr. Ambedkar? (JPSC 2024**)

48. **Which of the following rivers does not drain into the Arabian Sea? (JPSC 2024**)

61. **Which among the following is not true about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? (JPSC 2024**)

67. **Which of the following is not a cash crop? (JPSC 2024**)